大学英语竞赛C类真题集合

大学英语竞赛C类真题集合 2007 National English Contest for College Students (Level C - Preliminary) Part I Listening Comprehension (25 minutes, 30 points) Section A (6 points) Directions: In this section, you will hear 6 short conversations. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. Both the conversation and the question will be read only once. After each question, there will be a pause. During the pause, you must read the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre. 1. A. He hasn’t found a suitable one. B. He hasn’t enough money. C. He prefers his old one. 2. A. In ten minutes. B. In fifteen minutes. C. In twenty minutes. 3. A. Have dinner with Mary. B. See a film with Mary. C. Do his homework. 4. A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy. 5. A. He has to go to the bank. B. He has missed the train. C. His train has been delayed. 6. A. ?315. B. ?350. C. ?375. Section B (4 points) Directions: In this section, you will hear one long conversation. The conversation will be read only once. At the end of the conversation, there will be a one-minute pause. During the pause, you must read the four questions, each with three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre. 7. What office is the student looking for? A. Accounting. B. Economic History. C. Economics. 8. When was the orientation meeting held? A. Yesterday. B. Last Friday. C. A week ago. 9. What is the rule about attendance at lectures? A. It is optional. B. It is necessary. C. It is difficult to enforce. 10. How often does the student have to attend tutorials? A. Once every other week. B. Three times a week. C. Once a week. Section C (10 points) Directions: In this section, you will hear 10 short news items. After each item, there will be a pause. During the pause, you must read the question and then the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre. 11. When did the bomb go off in a popular market in central Baghdad? A. Late in the evening. B. At mid-morning. C. Late in the afternoon. 12. What’s the purpose of the Amber Alert program? A. To report the number of children missing in the U.S. every year. B. To help find the children who are believed to have been abducted. C. To find out the reasons why children are kidnapped in the U.S. 13. How many villages have been involved in the inter-communal fighting in Chad? A. Fewer than 8. B. About 10. C. Over 20. 14. What is the best tactic when you’re caught up by a rolling wave of snow? A. To create space around you. B. To outrun the avalanche. C. To leave the ski resort instantly. 15. What’s the news item mainly talking about? A. Development of medical technology. B. Health care in California. C. Health insurance in the U.S. 16. How many people did bird flu kill in Indonesia in two weeks? A. 5. B. 2. C. 35. 17. What’s the function of the new drug produced by Pfizer? A. Reducing dogs’ weight. B. Increasing dogs’ appetite. C. Controlling dogs’ population. 18. What will soon begin in the southern Senegalese towns? A. Planting new agricultural crops. B. Biofuel production. C. Fuel recycling. 19. When did Ponti begin making films? A. In 1913. B. In 1931. C. In 1938. 20. What’s the main reason Democrats could regain control of Congress after 12 years? A. Nancy Pelosi has become their leader. B. Americans are dissatisfied with the Iraq war. C. They support sending more troops to Iraq. Section D (10 points) Directions: In this section, you will hear a short passage. There are ten missing s or phrases in it. Fill in the blanks with the exact words you hear on the tape. Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet. Every traveller has a tale to tell about bad driving. These are usually exaggerated (21) __________ of life on the main streets of cities where the motorists are crazy and traffic lights are treated as colourful (22) __________. It all happened on a Sunday April morning. I (23) __________ my intention to turn left into a side road and paused as the oncoming traffic cleared. But as I drove across the road, an elderly man driving a battered Renault 12 chose to overtake me (24) __________ pass on the inside. There was a fearful bang and my car was pushed sideways. I felt groggy and bruised and was taken to hospital in the back seat of a police car. There my spleen was removed. Fortunately, though, my recovery was steady and (25) __________. But that’s not the end of the tale. Yes, I had taken out insurance and it covered my medical expenses, (26) __________ while I recovered and my flights home. However, as always, there was a catch to it. I had (27) __________ hired my car from a backstreet firm called Kavis that had been recommended by the hotel front desk. I was assured that I had full insurance cover, but Kavis (28) __________ my credit card ?800 on the day of the accident. My solicitor took advice on the form I had signed. Being in a hurry at the time, I hadn’t (29) __________ to get it translated. “Mr. Balmer was stupid to sign this document,” it read. I (30) __________ with a smile. After all, I am still alive! Part II Vocabulary and Structure (10 minutes, 15 points) Directions: There are 15 incomplete sentences in this part. For each blank there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that best completes the sentence. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre. 31. If I lose my new watch my parents will be very annoyed ______ me. A. against B. with C. for D. about 32. I don’t think ______ possible to master a foreign language without much memory work. A. this B. that C. its D. it 33. Does brain power ______ as we get older? Scientists now have some surprising answers. A. descend B. decline C. reduce D. collapse 34. I don’t believe in Brown’s adventure at all. It sounds so ______. A. incredible B. credible C. incredulous D. credulous 35. We’ll never get to the station on time ______ we run as fast as we can. A. in case B. even if C. provided that D. if only 36. Oil sales volume in local urban and rural areas rose by 24% and 50% ______, over July 2006. A. separately B. individually C. independently D. respectively 37. The shipping authorities followed the ______ of the unidentified submarine on their radar screens. A. channel B. way C. course D. direction 38. I set off as soon as I got the news about my grandpa’s illness. Unfortunately, he ______ at the hospital before I ______. A. has died; went there B. had died; arrived C. died; had been there D. was dying; had gone 39. The committee has made rules ______ all its members are supposed to work. A. by which B. so that C. now that D. for which 40. They were married for fifteen years but have now ______ up and live apart. A. split B. divided C. divorced D. separated 41. We wouldn’t have missed the train if we ______ to the station. A. didn’t walk B. wouldn’t run C. hadn’t walked D. weren’t running 42. No matter what measure they took, in no way ______. A. could the outflowing tide be controlled B. the outflowing tide could be controlled C. could the outflowing tide control D. the outflowing tide could control 43. —Did you get any information from Peter? —He ______ an expert, but he doesn’t seem to know much. A. believes to be B. is supposed to be C. thought to be D. is claimed being 44. —The radio’s terribly loud. Could you turn it down a little? —Sorry! ______ —Yes, and something else - wouldn’t it be an idea to buy your own soap? A. Is it disturbing you? B. I forgot where I put my soap this morning. C. A football match was broadcast live on it. D. Could you repeat what you said? 45. —Can I book a room from now until Friday? —_________________ —What’s the price? —$128.75 not counting the service. A. Definitely. Go see it yourself. B. Yes, our hotel is quite near to the station. C. Of course. Would you like to follow me? D. You can have Room 33, overlooking the sea. Part III IQ Test (5 minutes, 5 points) Directions: There are 5 IQ Test questions in this part. For each question there are 4 choices marked A, B, C and D. Mark your answer on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre. 46. Which figure completes the sequence? 47. A man has 29 socks in his drawer, 9 identical blue, 8 identical grey and 12 identical black. The lights have fused and he is completely in the dark. How many socks must he take out to make certain that he has a pair of each colour? A. 21 B. 14 C. 23 D. 24 48. Which comes next? A, 1A, 111A, 311A,? A. 1312A B. 13211A C. 1231A D. 11231A 49. Find the weight to balance the scales. A. 2kg B. 4kg C. 3kg D. 5kg 50. What is the missing number? A. 748 B. 754 C. 745 D. 784 Part IV Reading Comprehension (25 minutes, 40 points) Section A (6 points) Directions: There is one passage in this section with 6 questions. For each question, there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. You should decide on the best choice. Then mark the corresponding letter on the Answer Sheet with a single line through the centre. Questions 51-56 are based on the following passage. “A Unique Experience in Indian Cuisine” men, the Gandhi Restaurant could be considered the leader of a new breed of Indian Opening night at the Gandhi Restaurant cuisine in Hampshire,” he added. brought cries of praise and delight from “By far the best curry we have had in the customers when they sampled the unique Portsmouth area,” was the comment of Havant cuisine on Monday night. diners, Mr. and Mrs. Jim Cairns of Denvilles. Opened by County Councillor, Mr. Tony “We enjoyed the different menu and found Peaston, the Gandhi offers the discerning diner the advice of the staff, explaining how each dish authentic Indian dishes, many available for the was prepared, very helpful for deciding our first time in Hampshire. choice of menu,” they said. The secret lies in the preparation - only Such glowing comments reflect the authentic Indian herbs and spices are used to exclusive nature of the dishes available at the individually prepare each special dish, following Gandhi Restaurant. ancient recipes, many handed down through generations of Indian chefs. Original Recipes High Standard You can choose from a menu which offers curries and tandoories, knowing each one is “I’ve travelled extensively and dined at specially cooked for you, with individual care many Indian restaurants throughout the country, and attention, according to strict original but rarely have I tasted Indian food of such a recipes, by a top London chef, formerly of high standard,” extolled Councillor Peaston. Covent Garden. “Whilst Gandhi himself was a leader of And after you have sampled the spicy delights of your main course, you can select from a choice of original Indian sweets to temper your palate. Relaxing in the comfortable surroundings of the restaurant, you can have a hot towel to freshen yourself or clean your fingers between courses - another touch of Indian living. The Gandhi Restaurant, situated at 139 Kingston Road, Portsmouth, is fully licensed and open seven days a week. You can pop in for a traditional Indian lunch between 12 and 2:30 pm or enjoy a languid evening meal, when the restaurant is open from 6 pm to midnight. But take care to book in advance, as demand for this cuisine is expected to be high, so avoid disappointment by telephoning Portsmouth 811966. As proof of confidence in your enjoyment, the Gandhi is offering a 10 per cent discount on the cost of your meal, when you produce this advertisement within three months of the opening. The staff at the Gandhi look forward to serving you with your first taste of truly authentic Indian cuisine in this area- and they know you will come back again and again. 51. “A Unique Experience in Indian Cuisine” here means that the Gandhi restaurant __________. A. is the only genuine Indian restaurant in Hampshire B. offers customers its own special style of cooking C. makes special food for native Indian customers D. is trying out Indian recipes for the first time 52. How does the food preparation contribute to the unique, experience? A. It varies from customer to customer, depending on the price. B. The methods used are secret and known only to the chef. C. It uses genuine Indian ingredients and follows ancient recipes. D. It follows methods described by traditional Indian authors. 53. According to the article, in what way does the restaurant live up to its name? A. It will soon be as famous throughout the world as Gandhi himself. B. The owner considers himself to be a leader of the local Indian community. C. It has had a considerable influence on other Hampshire restaurants. D. It sets new standards of excellence for other Indian restaurants to follow. 54. Where did the top chef of the Gandhi Restaurant use to work? A. In London. B. In Hampshire. C. In Denvilles. D. In Portsmouth. 55. Hot towels are provided __________. A. because customers feel cold B. to make customers feel more relaxed C. mainly for hygienic reasons D. to give customers the true feel of Indian life 56. Customers can obtain a cheaper meal by __________. A. bringing the advertisement with them B. making a phone call to the restaurant C. providing proof of their enjoyment D. contributing to the cost of advertising Section B (7 points) Directions: In this section, there is one passage followed by 7 statements. Go over the passage quickly and mark the answers on the Answer Sheet. For questions 57- 63, mark Y (for Yes) if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage; N (for No) if the statement contradicts the information given in the passage; NG (for Not Given) if the information is not given in the passage. Questions 57-63 are based on the following passage. Eleven days ago, as he felt himself being crushed from head to toe, Andrew Jepson was certain he was about to die. Yesterday the 26-year-old construction worker was able to stroll around his parents’ home and tell for the first time how he survived being run over by a four-ton road roller. The accident happened as Mr. Jepson worked at a building site at Heathrow and the roller was reversing at 4 mph. “I was looking away and then I just felt it go over my leg”, he said. “I fell to the floor and felt this amazing pain in my leg as it was being crushed.” “When I felt it running over me I thought this is it, I’m dead. Nobody can survive this.” “There was absolutely nothing I could do. The pain was horrendous and all the air was being crushed out of my lungs.” “I couldn’t breathe. I thought every breath would be my last.” The machine took more than a second to roll over Mr. Jepson’s body. “It came over my head but I had my hard hat on which must have blocked most of the pressure,” he said. Workmates believed he would be dead but the uneven surface, foundation for a road, cushioned much of the weight of the roller and saved him. “Afterwards I tried to get straight up,” he said. “I was fully conscious. I was in shock but for some reason I thought, ‘If I stay down, I will die.’” “Luckily a labourer ran over and kept me down so that I would not do any more injury to myself.” “The driver rushed over. He was really upset. I said, ‘You are not to blame, it was just an accident.’” Mr. Jepson, a site engineer, suffered crushed ribs, bruising, cuts and a collapsed left lung but escaped permanent injury. An air ambulance arrived and doctors operated at the scene. He spent two days in intensive care but six days later was back at his parents’ home near Spalding, Lincolnshire. “It is like being born again,” said Mr. Jepson, who has amazed doctors with his recovery. “When I came around from the anaesthetic I just cried with joy. Being able to walk and breathe again is the most wonderful thing in the world.” Mr. Jepson’s 62-year-old father, John, said, “When we heard he had been under a roller I feared the worst. We prayed all the way to the hospital. To see him now is just wonderful.” Mr. Jepson’s employer, construction firm Laing, said the accident was still being investigated. Statements: 57. The accident happened two weeks ago. 58. Mr. Jepson was paving the road when the accident happened. 59. The roller was going backwards when it hit Mr. Jepson. 60. A workman ran immediately to the scene of the accident. 61. An operation was performed at the scene of the accident. 62. The company has decided who is responsible for the accident. 63. The investigation of the accident lasted for almost two years. Section C (7 points) Directions: You are going to read a magazine article about sand. Seven sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences (A-H) the one which fits each gap (64-70). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Mark your answers on the Answer Sheet. Sand: as children we play on it and as adults we relax on it. It is something we complain about when it gets in our eyes on a windy beach, and praise when it is made into sand castles. But we don’t often look at it. If we did, we would discover an account of a geological past and a history of sea life that goes back thousands and, in some cases, mil- lions of years. Sand covers not just seashores, but also ocean beds, deserts and mountains. 64 And it is a major element in manufactured products too - concrete is largely sand, while glass is made of little else. Well, it is larger than fine dust and smaller than shingle. In fact, according to the 65most generally accepted scheme of measurement, grains can be called sand if their diameter is greater than 0.06 of a millimetre and less than 0.6 of a millimetre. Depending on its age and origin, a particular sand can consist of tiny stones or porous grains through which water can pass. They have come from the breaking down of rocks, or 66from the dead bodies of sea creatures, which collect on the bottom of the oceans, or even from volcanic eruptions. If it is a dazzling white, its grains may come from nearby coral, from crystalline quartz rocks or from gypsum, like the white sand of New Mexico. On Pacific Islands, jet black 67 sands form from volcanic minerals. Other black beaches are magnetic and are mined for iron ore. It washes rock into streams and rivers and down to the sea, leaving be- hind softer materials. By the time it reaches the sea, the hardest rocks remain but every- thing else has 68been broken into tiny particles of 0.02 millimetre diameter or less. The largest pieces fall to the bottom quickly, while smaller particles float and settle only slowly in deeper water, which is why the sandy beach on the shoreline so often turns to mud further out. If the individual fragments still have sharp edges, you can be sure they were formed fairly recently. This is the case on the island of Kamoama in Hawaii, where a beach was created after a volcanic eruption in 1990. Molten lava spilled into the sea and exploded into 69 glassy droplets. It seems that when the poet William Blake saw infinity in a grain of sand he was not far wrong. Sand is an irreplaceable industrial ingredient which has many uses. Sand cushions our land from the force of the sea, and geologists say it often does a better job protecting our shores than the most advanced coastal technology. 70 A. These may have the shape of stars or spirals, their edges rough or smooth. B. It is one of the most common substances on earth. C. In addition, it has one vital function which you might never even notice. D. Rain is an important force in the creation of beaches. E. In the great slow cycle of the earth, sand that was once rock can turn to rock again. F. What exactly is sand? G. Colour is another clue to the origins of sand. H. It can be difficult to date the sand on a beach accurately but it is possible to get a general idea of whether or not the sand is “young” or “old”. Section D (10 points) Directions: In this section, there is one passage followed by 5 questions. Read the passage carefully, then answer the questions in as few words as possible (not more than 10 words). Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet. Questions 71-75 are based on the following passage. Rare among American actors, Depp has made a name for himself effortlessly switching between mainstream Hollywood movies and more “out of the ordinary” projects. Talking about his choice of roles, he once said, “With any part you play, there is a certain amount of yourself in it. There has to be, otherwise it’s not acting. It’s lying.” Highlights of a richly diverse career include Edward Scissorhands, Sleepy Hollow and Pirates of the Caribbean. Depp dropped out of school at sixteen to concentrate on a career in music, playing the guitar (he played with more than twenty bands). However, his musical career rifled to take off, and he found himself selling pens over the phone to pay the bills. His lucky break came when makeup artist Loft Allison, to whom he was briefly married, introduced him to Nicolas Cage. Although at first they did not like each other, they later became good friends and Cage persuaded him to try acting. Depp signed on with Cage’s agent, and made his feature film debut in Wes Craven’s horror film Nightmare on Elm Street, in which the character he played was eaten by his bed. After that he had his first screen leading role in Private Resort. Depp went on to achieve teen idol status in the TV series 21 Jump Street, but after four seasons, he wanted out, with the hope of making the transition to the big screen. He starred in Cry-Baby, followed by Tim Burton’s Edward Scissorhands, after which he went on to win considerable critical acclaim in Ed Wood, a reunion with Burton. Depp made his feature directorial debut with The Brave in 1997, a film he also co-wrote and starred in. Premiering at the Cannes Film Festival, the film also featured Marlon Brando, but earned mostly negative reviews, with most critics blaming its weak script. Sleepy Hollow teamed him with director Burton yet again, before he starred in Ted Demme’s Blow, and appeared in the thriller From Hell, about Jack the Ripper. OFF screen, his good looks and “bad boy” image (he was once arrested for attacking intrusive paparazzi with a wooden plank) have earned him a lot of media attention. He was voted one of the fifty most beautiful people in the world by People magazine in 1996. He has also had his fair share of celebrity romances; when his engagement to Edward Scissorhands co-star Winona Ryder ended, he had a tattoo (one of at least eight), which said “Winona Forever”, altered by laser to get rid of the last two letters of her name. His relationship with model Kate Moss also ended abruptly in 1998, when he started dating French singer-actress Vanessa Paradis. They are now married and have two children, Lily-Rose Melody and Jack. More recent work has included Pirates of the Caribbean with Geoffrey Rush and Once Upon a Time in Mexico. Questions: 71. What does Johnny Depp think of acting a role without having any part of oneself in it? 72. Who inspired Depp to start his film career? 73. Why did many critics negatively review Depp’s film The Brave? 74. How many films has Depp made with director Tim Burton? 75. What have brought Depp a lot of media attention off screen? Section E (10 points) Directions: In this section, there is one passage followed by a summary. Read the pas- sage carefully and complete the summary below by choosing a maximum of three words from the passage to fill in the spaces 76-80. Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet. Questions 76-80 are based on the following passage. Lack of culture, or rather an excess of the wrong sort of culture, is often considered to be synonymous with disadvantage. Most commonly associated with low cultural standards are low levels of reading, and some thirteen per cent of all twenty-three-year-olds feel they have trouble with reading and writing. One way of compensating such disadvantaged young people is thought to be to provide them with the culture they lack: in particular, high quality reading material. Whereas forty to fifty per cent of young people aged sixteen to twenty rarely read a book, the majority appear to read comics. In 1991 sales of Viz, a UK comic, exceeded one million copies per issue, making it the fourth best-selling periodical in Britain. The reading of comics, however, is not restricted to young people: by 1992 it was estimated that two out of three men aged eighteen to fifty-three read Viz. The number of imitators this comic has spawned, including Zit, Gas, Brain Damage and Swiz, indicates the extent of the influence it wields. The reading of comics was traditionally regarded by the educational establishment with considerable suspicion. Whereas the received arts were always assumed to exert an improving or civilizing influence, comics were thought to “rot children’s brains”, to lower educational standards and to threaten morality. They were, and are, assumed to be an inferior cultural form, their readers assumed to come from the lower social classes, to be low educational attainers and to be easily led astray. Over the past decade, perceptions of comics have shifted. Since the 1970s, the comic format has been commonly used to represent the interests of various disenfranchised groups — community groups, the unemployed, welfare recipients — who became more conscious of a climate conditioned by other contemporary movements such as civil fights, consumerism, self-help and de-institutionalization. As cultural signifiers, comics have become the subject matter of academic courses in cultural and media studies. Indeed, young people’s cultural activities, grounded in the commercial rather than the subsidized sector, are beginning to merit the attention of the arts establishment. Summary: Low cultural standards, such as 76 of reading, a difficulty experienced by many young adults, are often associated with disadvantage. While around half of sixteen to twenty-year-olds rarely read books, most will read comics. Although many comics in Britain are 77 and have lots of readers, the educational establishment still considers them to be an 78 , appealing only to the lower levels of society. However, attitudes are beginning to change as the format has been adopted to 79 of disenfranchised groups. Certain comics have been included in the courses of 80 studies. Young people’s cultural activities are beginning to attract the attention of the arts establishment. Part V Cloze (10 minutes, 10 points) Directions: There are 10 blanks in the passage. Use the words (phrases) given in the box to fill in the blanks, changing the form where necessary. Use only one word (phrase) in each blank. There are two extra words (phrases) which you do not need to use. Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet. anxious about, strong, suggest, instruct, which, especial, whether, apply to, all, both, great, form Working out to music can improve the coordination of your mind and body, (81) __________ you are football crazy or keen on tennis. The (82) __________ that rock or pop music might ever play a part in sports training would have been regarded as a joke not so long ago. But today modem music is increasingly filling the gym as well as the front room. The idea of exercise to music is not new. For years, (83) __________ in eastern Europe, the benefits of sportsmen and sportswomen having (84) __________in ballet and classical dance, with their stress on total body control and balance, have long been recognised. Figure-skating and ice-dance are usually performed to music and can be said to be specialised (85) __________ of this type of exercise. But ballet and classical dance can be (86) __________ other sports that are also pleasing to the eye, such as gymnastics and skiing, (87) __________ of which demand high standards of balance, coordination and suppleness. In western Europe and North America, a far (88) __________ interest has been shown in working out to classical music. Even sports which seem to demand muscular (89) __________ more than any other physical requirement have taken up exercise to music as a valuable addition to their own specialised training schemes. Devotees of soccer, rugby, and rowing now regularly train to music; even those who take part in weightlifting, (90) __________ demands enormous physical strength, and participants in athletics field events, find that exercise to music is beneficial and makes their movements more fluid. Part VI Translation (15 minutes, 20 points) Section A (10 points) Directions: Translate the underlined sentences in the following passage into Chinese. Remember to write the answers on the Answer Sheet. (91) An active lifestyle and a healthy, fish-rich diet are not only good for your heart, they may also help tackle the memory loss associated with old age, two leading neuroscientists said. As people live longer, finding ways of halting the decline in mental agility is becoming increasingly important, said Professor Ian Robertson, director of the Institute of Neuroscience at Trinity College Dublin. (92) “The biggest threat to being able to function well and properly is our brains,” he told journalists. “There is very strong evidence, particularly in the over-50s, that the degree to which you maintain your mental faculties depends on a handful of quite simple environmental factors,” he said. (93) Those who remained physically fit, avoided high stress levels and enjoyed a rich and varied social life are better equipped to stay alert as they age. Mental stimulation, learning new things and simply thinking young also help. A new survey compiled for the University of Kent and the charity Age Concern showed ageism was rife in Britain where people, on average, see youth as ending at 49 and old age beginning at 65. But Robertson said such attitudes were not helpful given the number of 80-year- olds who remain “sharp as pins”. (94) “If you start to think of yourself as old when you are 60, which is no longer justified, you will behave old,” he said. Research conducted by his Trinity College colleague, Professor Marina Lynch, showed healthy eating was another key requirement for staying on the ball. (95) Lynch said new research showed fish oils may reduce the cell inflammation that triggers a decline in memory. Section B (10 points) Directions: Translate the following sentences into English, using the words given in the brackets. Remember to write your answers on the Answer Sheet. 96(这决不是解决人口问题的最好办法。(by no means) 97(首先，我要感谢那些为取得这项成果而辛勤工作的所有人。(bring about) 98(越来越多的新能源被开发出来代替煤和石油。(exploit) 99(有必要让人们充分认识违反交通规则的危害。(aware of) 100(看到古代的生活完整地保存下来，我们是多么高兴啊! (preserve) Part VII Writing (30 minutes, 30 points) Task I (10 points) Directions: You are in England helping to organise a course for foreign students which begins next week. This morning you received a message from Katarina Tabacek, one of the students who has reserved a place on the course. She wants to bring a friend with her on the course. Look at the description of the course below and the notes you have made and write to Katarina explaining why her friend cannot come on the course. Write a letter of between 80-120 words in an appropriate style on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your address or name. Task II (20 points) Directions: Read the following extract of a newspaper article on personal freedom. Then write an article (between 110-150 words) responding to the points raised and expressing your own views. Week after week we seem to hear about some reckless adventure that has gone wrong. Ina recent Sydney to Hobart ocean yacht race, the boats sailed into violent storms. Most of the sailors were rescued, but only as a result of a massive rescue operation which cost a huge amount of money and put rescuers’ lives at risk. Similar tragedies have occurred in other dangerous sports, costing the taxpayer thousands and wasting the emergency services’ time. Isn’t it time to ban dangerous sports and protect people who put themselves and others at risk? Or would a ban restrict our freedom too much? Please write on the Answer Sheet. 2007年全国大学生英语竞赛初赛赛题(C类)参考答案 Part I Listening Comprehension (25 minutes, 30 points) Section A (6 points) 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B Section B (4 points) 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. C Section C (10 points) ll. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. A l7. A 18. B 19. C 20. B Section D (10 points) 21. accounts 22. decorations 23. signalled 24. rather than 25. complete 26. accommodation 27. foolishly 28. charged 29. bothered 30. paid up Part II Vocabulary and Structure (10 minutes, 15 points) 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. A 40.A 41. C 42. A 43. B 44. A 45. D Part III IQ Test (5 minutes, 5 points) 46. B 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. B Part IV Reading Comprehension (25 minutes, 40 points) Section A (6 points) 51. B 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. D 56. A Section B (7 points) 57. N 58. NG 59. Y 60. Y 61. Y 62. N 63. NG Section C (7 points) 64. B 65. F 66. A 67. G 68. D 69. H 70. C Section D (10 points) 71. Lying. / Not acting, but lying. 72. Nicolas Cage. 73. They thought its script was weak. 74. Three. 75. His good looks and "bad boy" image. Section E (10 points) 76. low levels 77. best-selling periodicals 78. inferior cultural form 79. represent the interests 80. cultural and media Part V Cloze (10 minutes, 10 points) 81. whether 82. suggestion 83. especially 84. instruction 85. forms 86. applied to 87. both 88. greater 89. strength 90. which Part VI Translation (15 minutes, 20 points) Section A (10 points) 91(两位著名的神经专家认为，积极的生活方式和健康的、富含鱼类的饮食不仅对心脏有好 处，还有助于攻克由衰老引起的记忆力减退。 92(他告诉记者说:“对我们肌体正常运转构成最大威胁的是我们的大脑。” 93(那些身体健康、不为压力困扰、享受多姿多彩生活的人，在上了年纪后，思维更能保持 敏锐。 94(他说:“尽管60岁已不再算老，但如果你60岁就开始认为自己老了，那么你的举止就 会象老年人一样。 95(林奇说最新的研究显示:鱼油能降低细胞炎症，而细胞炎症正是会导致记忆力衰退。 Section B (10 points) 96. This is by no means the best way to solve the population problem. This is by no means the best solution to the population problem. By no means is this the best way to solve the population problem. 97. First (of all), I'd like to thank all those who have worked hard to bring about the result. 98. More and more new energy resources have been exploited to replace coal and oil. 99. It is necessary to make people fully aware of the danger of violating traffic rules / regulations. 100. What a delight it is for us to see ancient life perfectly preserved! How delighted we are to see ancient life so well preserved! How happy we are to see ancient life preserved so well! 2011 National English Contest for College students (Level C-Preliminary) Part I Listening Comprehension (30 marks) Section A (5 marks) In this section, you will hear five short conversations. Each conversations will be read only once. At the end of each conversation, there will be a twenty-second pause, read the question and the there choices marked A,B and C ,and decide which is the best answer.Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre. 1. What does the man want to do? A. Get something to eat now. B. Find a quiet place that shows games. C. Watch the next game with the woman. 2. Why does not the man have a MySpace account? A. He is not skilled at using computer. B. All of the instruction are in English C. The woman won not teach him. 3. How long does the woman plan to try teleworking A. For a few days. B. For a few weeks. C. For a few months. 4. What does the man hope will happen? A. The price of cell phone novels will go down. B. The novel’s author will writer longer stories. C. The woman will tell him ho the story ends. 5. what is the woman going to do next? A. turn on her computer. B. Go for a walk with peter. C. Visit her new neighbors. Section B (10 marks) In this section, you will hear two long conversations. Each conversation will be read only once. At the end each conversation, there will be a one minute pause. During the pause, read the questions, each with three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre. Conversation one 6. What did Jack do over the summer? A. He studied very hard. B. He took a summer class. C. He visited one of his teachers. 7. What does Jack think of Ms Wellington as a teacher? A. Easy-going. B. Tough. C. Interesting. 8. Why is Ms Wellington’s class hard? A. Her exams are difficult. B. She does not give students the help they need. C. She makes do lots of work. Conversation two 9. Why is Mrs. Griffin going to the city where the hotel is located? A. He is on holiday. B. He’s on a business trip C. He is going to a conference. 10. How many times has Mrs. Griffin stayed at the Sunrise Hotel? A. Twice. B. Once. C. Three times. 11. Where is Mrs. Griffin form? A. Canada. B. New Zealand. C. Australia. 12. What is Mrs. Griffin’s passport number? A.87647489 B.87637289 C.87637489 13. What kind of room does Mrs. Griffin want? A. A single room for two nights. B. A double room for two nights. C. A single room for one night. 14. When will Mrs. Griffin arrive at Sunrise Hotel? A. at 9:15 pm B. at 9:35 pm C. at 10:00 pm 15. What food will be put into Mrs. Griffin’s room? A. a sandwich with fries. B. a cheese sandwich. C. a burger with chips. Section C (5Marks) 16. What does the Associated Press ask editor and news directors to do? A. vote for the top stories of the year. B. describe the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico C. writes about the 11 workers killed in the explosion 17. Where are the doctors and technology experts from? A. New York. B. London C. Tokyo 18. For how long does President Obama agree to extend the tax cuts? A. for four years B. for three years C. for two years. 19. How many people in the world don’t have enough to eat,according to the report? A. more than one billion. B. some six hundred million. C. nearly nine hundred million 20. What have astronomers recently discovered? A. there are unknown plants in older galaxies. B. there are many galaxies in the universe C. there are a lot more red dwarf in older galaxies Section D (10 marks) In the section, you will hear a short passage. There are 10 missing words phrases. Fill in the blanks with the exact words or phrases you hear. Remember to write the answer on the answer sheet What do you do if you don’t get your first choice university? This ____ faces thousands of British every year. Many such_____ turn to Clearing, a service that helps find university places for students at the last moment. If they don’t have the marks to get into their____, Clearing tells them about places available at other university, though they might have to read a difficult subject. This year has seen a record number of people applying to university. This, combined with the _____________________,an uncertain job market, and budget cuts at university, product even more of a scramble for places than usual. Some sources say six students have applied for each remaining___________________________ place The British University Admissions Service, UCAS, says up to a quarter of this year’s university applicants-almost 190000 people-have not been admitted into a____________________________. That is an increase of over 46000 students from last year. Faced with these figure, some British students might consider an interesting alternative:_____________________________. The University of Nottingham for is offering place at its campuses in Ningbo, near Shanghai, and Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Students at these institutions can earn University of Nottingham degrees, according, engineering and English. Similarly, the University of Bolton says it has unlimited places at its campus in the United Arab Emirates. To deal with these problems, the UK’s Higher Education Minister, David Willet’s, is encouraging students who have not made the grade to consider alternatives to university, such as _______________________and studying at home. “There are arrange of options available, “he says. “people can reapply next year, so they should consider spending this year in a way that will add positively to their CVs. Getting _____________________or other skills will strengthen their chances next year.” Some commentators say, though that rising university costs, poor long-term_______________________, and a drop in graduate recruitment mean this the worst time to be a university student in the UK. Part Two Vocabulary and Structure (15 marks ) There are 15 incomplete sentences in this section. For each blank there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that best completes the sentence. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre. 31. After four days of talks, we are glad to announce that the union and management have reached an______. The agreement is fair and benefits both sides. A. accord B. accomplishment C. identity D. undertaking 32. As the clerk______prepared my milk shake, I wondered how long she had been working there ,mindlessly making ice cream treats in a set order of steps. A. logically B. methodically C. graphically D. synthetically 33. As a boy he wanted to be a fireman. As a high school student, he thought he'd like to become a teacher. Now he______to be nothing more than a janitor. A. Assumes B. Prescribes C. Aspires D. Presumes 34. Regardless of what caused it, I an grateful that have finally reached a point in my life_______I can appreciate my strengths, accept my weaknesses and try to be comfortable with everything in between. A. Why B. Where C. Which D. What 35. ______information provided by members of the public, the police would have a much move difficult job. A. Supposing B. Provided the C. If it were not for D. On condition that 36. Peter Brown was a painstaking writer;______, he once spent half a day on the composition of a single sentence. A. On the other hand B. Nevertheless C. Moreover D. For example 37.----What an I going to do about a present for Carol? ----You______some flowers. A. Might have sent her B. Must have sent her C. Could send her D. Would send her 38. Without the air holding in some of the sun's heat, the earth______cold at night, too cold for us to live on. A. Will be freezing B. Would be freezing C. An be frozen D. Would be frozen 39. The students in our university each______an English dictionary. That is to say, each of the students in our university______an English dictionary. A. Have; has B. Have; have C. Has; have D. Has; has 40. Here's your kitchen. I hope you enjoy cooking here. Is there______else that you need? A. Something B. Anything C. Nothing D. Everything 41. David______his business partner over plans to reduce the workforce. A. Came down to B. Broke down to C. Fell out with D. Went along with 42. ______is this piece of equipment to be removed from the building. A. On no account B. Absolutely C. Scarcely D. Not at all 43. Helen' s parents were______that she was still on the job., but she had resigned. A. In doubt B. Of the opinion C. Under the impression D. With suspicion 44.----I don't think I will ever, in my life, win a lottery of five million dollars. ----Well, ______. Anything can happen. A. You made it B. You're kidding C. What you say D. You can never tell 45.-----How did you find the concert in the Grand Theatre last night? -----______ but the conductor was perfect. A. I couldn't agree more B. I didn't think much of it C. I was crazy about it D. I really liked it B. Part Three Cloze(15 marks ) I have been reading a lot on my iPad recently, and I have some (46)_____ (complain) not about the iPad itself but about the state of digital reading generally. Reading is a subtle thing, and its subtleties are artifacts of a venerable medium: words printed in ink on paper. Glass and pixels aren't the same. When I read a physical book, I don't have to look anywhere else to find out how much I've read. The iPad e---reader, iBooks tries to create the (47) illu_____ of a physical book. The pages seem to turn, and I can the edges of those that remain, but it's fake. There are always exactly six unturned pages, no matter (48)_____ I am in the book. Also, there is a larger problem. Books in their digital format look vastly less "finished", or less genuine than real books. You can vary their font and type size, but this only makes them (49)_____(resemble) word---processed---no matter how (50)_____(wretch) or wonderful they are---will never look as good as Robert Hass's poems in the print edition of The Apple Trees at Olema. But your poems can look almost exactly as ugly---as "e---book---like" ---as the Kindle version of that collection. All the e---book I've read have been ugly---books by Chang---rae Lee, Alvin Kernan, and Stieg Larsson---though the texts have been wonderful. I didn't grow up reading texts. I grew up reading books, and this(51)_____(differ) is important. When it comes to digital editions, the(52)_____(assume) seems to be that all books(53)are_____(create) equal. However, nothing could be further from the truth. In the mass migration from print to digital, we're seeing a profusion of digital books---many of them out of copyright---that look new and even "HD," but which may well have been supplanted by more accurate editions and better translations. We need a digital readers' guide---a place where readers can find(54)_____ whether the book they're about to download is the best available edition. (55)Fi_____, two related problems. I already have a personal library, but most of the books I've read have come from(56)_____(lend) libraries. Barnes & Noble has released an e---reader that allows short---term (57) _____(borrow) of some books. The entire idea behind Amazon's Kindle and Apple's iBooks assumes that you cannot read a book unless you own it first and that only you can read it unless you want to give your reading device to someone else. This goes against the social value of reading, the collective knowledge and (58)_____(collaborate) discourse that comes from access to (59)_____or our culture in general. Part Four Reading Comprehension (40 marks). Section A (10 marks ). Questions 61 to 65 are based on the following passage. Not keen on reading? Do you have trouble finding a novel that arouses your interest? Why not follow Ammon Shea's example and start reading a dictionary? Mr Shea owns over 1,000 dictionaries and he reads them for fun. He recently spent a year reading all 20 volumes of the Oxford English Dictionary. The dictionary contains more than 20,000 pages and over 59 million words. As he read from A to Z, he noted down interesting words in a ledger. This includes words such as "happify," meaning to make someone happy and "tripudiate", which means to dance, skip or leap for joy. Mr Shea also kept a diary about this experience, which has since become a best---selling book. Why did he do this? He claims it was fun. "I've always enjoyed reading dictionaries . They are far more interesting than people give then credit for," he said. It appears that it was not his goal to sound more intelligent by using longer and more complex words. "I'm not against long, fancy or obscure words, but I'm opposed to using then for their own sake," he said. In fact ,as a result of reading so many new words , Mr Shea often forgot everyday vocabulary. He wrote, "My head was so full of words that I often had trouble forming simple sentences." Mr Shea is not alone in his love of reading dictionaries.ElaineHiggleton, a representative of Collins Cbuild dictionaries, explained that thousands of crossword puzzle and Srabble fans read dictionaries for fun and to improve their games. MsHiggleton did however note that, "It's probably not the best way to learn English ,and you'd learn more than you need." It is not known how many of the 59 million words Ms Shea remembers, but he has certainly made history with his eccentric hobby. Questions 61 to 65. Decide whether the following statements are True or False. 61. Mr Shea has read 1.000 dictionaries. 62. Mr Shea spent one month reading the Oxford English Dictionary. 63. In Mr Shea's opinion,people don't give dictionaries enough credit for being interesting. 64. Mr Shea thinks it is important t be able to use long and complicated words in everyday conversation. 65. Elaine Higgleton thinks that reading a dictionary is the best way to learn English. Section B (10 marks) Questions 66 to 70are based on the following passage. Surfing is something people often get hooked on after trying it a few times. For many surfers it is much more than a hobby---they would probably agree with the American professional surfer Kelly Slater when he said,"Once you're in, you're in. There's no getting out." "Surfing", of course, refers to riding on ocean waves using a surfboard. Many surfers stand up on their boards, which requires god balance and is therefore difficult for most beginners to learn, but some lie down and "bodyboard" The history of surfing probably began with the Polynesian people of the PacificIslands. One of the first white people to see anyone surfing was the British explorer Captain Gook, when his ship arrived in Hawaii in 1779. He watched many Hawaiians riding waves on large pieces of wood, and reported that, "Surfing seems to give them a feeling of great pleasure. " When surfing started to become very popular in the United States in the 1950's and 60s, surfers used large wooden boards (often more than three metres long) that were quite heavy. Boards today are shorter and also much lighter, because they are made of artificial materials instead of wood. For anyone who wants to try surfing. The only essentials are waves and a board. There are a few other things, however, that most surfers find important; a cord t attach one of their ankles to the board and therefore stop it from being carried a long way away when they fall off'; wax, which they put on the surface of the board to help their feet stick to it; and a wetsuit to help them keep warm in cold water. The south---west of English is an example of a place where surfers usually need wetsuits, even in summer. Surfing has been a professional sport for many yeara and the very best surfers are able to make a living from it. Most of the best professional surfers in the last 30 years, both men and women, have been American or Australian, but surfers from Brazil, Peru and South Africa have also won important competitions. Questions 66 to 70 Answer the following questions with the information given in the assage in a maximum of 10 words for each question. 66. Why do most beginners find it difficult t stand up on a surfboard? 67. In what part of the world did surfing probably begin? 68. When did surfing start to become very popular in the United States? 69. What do surfers use wax for? 70. According to the passage, in what part of the world do surfers usually need wetsuits? Section C (10 marks) Questions 71 to 75 are based on the following passage. The latest human development report from the United Nations Development Programmed (UNDP) contains some good news, but also a very serious warning about the threat posed y climate change. The report, published annually since 1990, seeks to asses “human development” around the world, and calculates a “Human Development Index (HDI) for 169 counties. The HDI is based on average income, life expectancy and level of education in a country. Not surprisingly, rich counties tend to have higher HDIs than poor counties, but there are interesting variations in human development among countries with similar levels of economic development, because some have better health and education systems than others. According to the 2010 report, the county with the highest level of human development is Norway, followed by Australia, New Zealand, the United States and Ireland. Most of the lowest HDIs belong to counties in sub-Saharan Africa. Almost all counties around the worlds have higher HDIs now than in 1990, despite the fact that since the 2008 financial crisis, the total number of people living in extreme poverty has increased. The report concludes that most people are healthier, live longer, are better educated and have access to more goods and services. Even in countries with severe economic problems, people’s level of health and education as generally improved. Although sub-Saharan African countries are at the bottom of the pile in terms of human development, some of them have made significant progress since 1990. The report is critical, however, of the fact economic inequality has increased significantly in the last twenty years, both within and between countries. The greatest threat to improving HDIs in the future, according to the report, is climate change. Economic growth increases average incomes in a country through increasing production and consumption. However , if this leads to greater emissions of greenhouse gases, as has always been the case in the past, global warning will probably accelerate, and cause severe environmental problems in some parts of the world hat will threaten the livelihoods of huge numbers f people. The progress of the last twenty years, therefore, might not be sustainable. The only solution, according to the report, I to break the link between economic growth and greenhouse gas emissions-which, needless to say, is easier, said than done. Questions 71 to 75 Complete the following sentences with information given in the passage in a maximum of 10 words for each blank. 71. The concept of “human development” is based on the following three factors: _______, _____________and_____________. 72. Some countries with similar levels of economic development have quite different HDIs because they have_____________. 73._________________has caused the number of people living in extreme poverty to increase since 2008. 74. The report says that ______________ is the greatest threat to increasing HDIs in the future. 75. The report says the link between____________ and ____________needs to be broken. Section D (10 marks) Questions 76 to 80 are based on the following passage It is natural for young people to be critical of their parents at times and to blame them for most of the misunderstanding between them. They have always complained, more or less justly, that their parents are out of touch with modern ways; that they are possessive and dominant; that they do not trust their children to deal with crises: that they talk too much about certain problems-and that they have no sense o humor, at least parent-child relationships. I think it is true that parents often underestimate their teenage children and also forget how they felt themselves when were young. Young people often irritate their parents with their choices in clothes, hairstyles, entertainers and music. This is not their motive. They feel cut off from the adult world into which they have not yet been accepted, so they create a culture and society and their own. Then, if it turns out that their music, entertainers, vocabulary, clothes or hairstyles irritate their parents, this gives them additional enjoyment. They feel they are superior, at least in a small way, and that they are leaders in style and taste. Sometimes teenagers are resistant and proud because they do not want their parents to approve of what they do. If they did approve, it looks as if the teenager is betraying his own age group. All this is assuming that the teenager is the underdog: he can not win but at least he can keep his honor. This is a passive way of looking at things. It is natural enough after years of childhood, when children were completely under their parent’s control, but it ignores the fact that when they become teenagers, children are beginning to be responsible for themselves. If you plan to control your life, co-operation should be a part of that plan. You can charm other people, especially your parents, into doing things the way you want. You can also impress people with your of responsibility and your initiative, so that they will give you the authority to do what you want to do. Questions 76 to 78 Choose the best answer according to the passage. 76 the first paragraph is mainly about_____________. A teenagers’ criticism of their parents B misunderstanding between teenagers and their parents C the dominance of parents over their children D teenagers’ ability to deal with crises 77 teenagers have strange clothes and hairstyles because they___________ A have a strong desire to be leaders in style and taste B want to prove their existence by creating a culture of their own C have no other way to enjoy themselves D want to irritate their parent 78 teenagers do not want their parents to approve of what they do because they _______________. A have already been accepted into adult world B feel that they are superior to adult world C want to win adults over to their culture D don’t want to appear to be disloyal to their own age group Question 79 to 80 Translate the sentences in the passage into Chinese 79 I think it is true that parents often underestimate their teenage children and also forget how they felt themselves when were young 80 You can charm other people, especially your parents, into doing things the way you want. Part V translate (10 mark) Translate the following sentences into English, using the words given brackets. Remember to write your answer on the answer sheet. 81 他以牺牲健康为代价获得财富。(at the cost of ) 82 我不知道有多少学生涉及到这次事件。(be involved in ) 83 为孤儿捐款，请按以下地址或电话同我们联系。(contact) 84 目前，在韩国和日本，汉语已成为第二外语，仅次于英语。(second to) 85 要不是下雨，我们的旅行本来是很愉快的。(but for) Part VII writing (30 marks) Task I (10marks) It’s the beginning of a new year. Write describing resolutions you make to try to change your life and why you Li Ming instead Write a note of about 100 words in an appropriate style on the answer sheet. Task II (20marks) Write about the following topic. Success is something most people try to achieve. What does success mean to different people, and what is your view or success? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant example from your own knowledge or experience. Write your article in about 140 words in an appropriate style on the answer sheet. 2012 National English Contest for College Students (Level C – Preliminary) (总分:150分 时间:120分钟) Part I listening Comprehension (30 marks) Section A (5 marks) In this section, you will hear five short conversations. Each conversation will be read only once .After each conversation, there will be a twenty-second pause. During the pause, read the question and the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer .Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre. 1. What does the man say we can do to deal with oil crisis? A. To make full use of oil. B. To use as little oil as possible C. To find alternative energy. 2. Where does this conversation most probably take place? A. In an insurance company. B. In a bank. C. In a supermarket. 3. According to the man, who is going to take over the position they are talking about? A. Janice. B. Someone else. C. Meryl. 4. What does the woman say about the man’s report for the meeting? A. He has to get it ready before tomorrow noon. B. He has done well enough. C. He has enough time to prepare it. 5. How many people will be on the earth by the year 2020 according to the professor? A. Some 5.8 billion. B. Nearly 7 billion. C. Over 8.5 billion. Section B (10 marks) In this section, you will hear two long conversations. Each conversation will be read only once. At the end of each conversation, there will be a one-minute pause. During the pause, read the questions and the three choices marked A, Band C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre Conversation One 6. What’s the main job of Simon’s organization? A. They send out radio signals to communicate with other planets. B. They look for life and intelligence on other planets. C. They study stars that have planets orbiting around them. Why does the organization search for radio signals from space? 7. A. Their presence may prove the existence of aliens. B. They may help scientists find out how the universe started. C. They convey messages about life on the earth. 8. Does Simon believe those stories about aliens visiting our planet? A. No, he doesn’t believe them at all. B. Yes, he does believe those stories because of his study. C. Yes, he believes them although he has no evidence. 9. Which of the following factor is considered to be important in forming life according to the passage? A. Gravity. B. Minerals. C. Water. 10. When did the ―big bang‖ occur? A. No one knows. B. 12 billion years ago. C. 20 billion year ago. Conversation Two 11. Why did Bob make the news last month? A. Because he criticized traditional jobs B. Because he earned a lot of money. C. Because he tried new strategies in finding a job. 12. In which way do the bestsellers like ―The Brand Called You‖ and ―The Personal Branding Phenomenon‖ help people? A. They advise people to promote themselves as brands. B. They teach people how to be a perfect partner. C. They give people tips for job interview. 13. When did Bob come up with the idea of using the internet to find a job? A. Ten years ago when he was a college student. B. When he began to do research between jobs. C. After he launched the campaign ―Give Bob a Job‖. 14. What was the purpose of Bob’s making the video? A. To fulfill his ambition as a director. B. To sell his products like Teddy bears and T-shirts. C. To advertise his skills and talents. 15. How can the internet help Bob in his job search exactly? A. By helping him make friends. By passing on the video he made. B. C. By providing job information for him. Section C (5 marks) In this section, you will hear five short news items. After each item, which will be read only once, there will be a pause. During the pause, read the question and the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre. 16. How many troops are going to withdraw from Afghanistan by the end of next year? A. 43,000. B. 10,000. C. 33,000. 17. What is the finding of the study? A. Low-calorie foods may lead to more weight. B. High-calorie foods may lead to more weight. C. High-calorie foods may lead to less weight. 18. What do the conflicting reports show about radiation? A. The radiation level given by Tokyo Electric is much smaller than that given by other tests. B. The radiation level given by other tests is smaller than that given by Tokyo Electric. C. The radiation level is close to 10,000 times the normal level. 19. Why are Caribbean Service and Europe Today shut down by BBC? A. Because of their outdated services. B. Because of cuts in government funding. C. Because of lack of target audience. 20. What’s the cause of demonstrations in cities and towns across Syria? A. They are calling for more freedom. B. Workers demand higher pay. C. Some thirty people were killed by the police. Section D (10 marks) In this section, you will hear a short passage. There are 10 missing words or phrases. Fill in the blanks with the exact words or phrases you hear. The passage will be read twice. Remember to write the answers on the answer sheet. Recovery from jetlag can take as long as a day for every time zone crossed. So if you’re flying east-west for your holiday or on business, it is likely to mean a few days of feeling tired or even unwell. Jetlag is the (21)__________ of the body’s natural cycle and some factors make it worse. The artificial atmosphere inside a plane can affect the body in a number of ways and add to the effects of jetlag. Exercising before flights helps to offset the effects on the body of reduced (22) _________, and aerobic exercise afterwards helps to reoxygenate it. Drink plenty of water. Children may need more. Drinking carrot juice before flying overcomes oxygen deficiency. Eat light, frequent meals. Heavy meals (23) __________ the blood circulation, which can lead to dizziness and fainting. For two weeks before you fly, eat plenty of food containing vitamins A and E; they will build up your (24) __________ and help to keep you fit. Sleep as much as you can before the flight and on it. On board, wear earplugs and eye pads because darkness (25) __________ secretion of the hormones that enhance sleep. Avoid alcohol, which restricts the brain’s oxygen intake. Like tea and coffee, alcohol increases the dehydration effect of flying. If you need to drink to relax, (26) __________ that the cabin environment intensifies the effect of alcohol. Wear loose, comfortable, warm clothes and limber up during flight. Sitting down for several hours slows down the (27) _________, leading to local stiffness, cramps and dizziness. Re-adjust to local time as soon as you can. Bright light helps the body stay alert, so if you are going somewhere sunny, stay outside. Do not smoke before or during the flight since smoking (28) ___________ the blood oxygen level. If you need to calm your nerves, try aromatherapy oils which have a sedative effect. (29) _________ your doctor before flying if you are on medication. The effects of some drugs are strengthened at high altitudes and some may produce (30) _________. Part II Vocabulary and Structure (15 marks) There are 15 incomplete sentences in this section. For each blank there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that best completes the sentence. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the centre. 31. What we all work for is to free ________ time for the things we really want to do. A. off B. up C. aside D. in 32. You _________ his words seriously. He was talking nonsense. A. won’t take B. may not take C. mustn’t have taken D. needn’t have taken 33. Never hesitate to _________ the first opportunity that comes along. A. seize B. draw C. who; that D. obtain 34. His mother ________ hated city life longed to return to the village in _______she grew up. A. that; where B. who; which C. who; that D. who; where 35. All things _______, I think I’d better take your advice. A. considering B. to be considered C. considered D. have been considered 36. Twelve European countries ________ over to the Euro on January 1st, 2002. A. transformed B. switched C. reversed D. altered 37. She isn’t anything ________ unpleasant as people say she is. A. as like B. like C. as D. like as 38. Stop complaining. You really ________ my nerves. A. get down B. get along C. get off D. get on 39. There wasn’t _______ truth in what he said. A. a grain of B. a ray of C. a point of D. a drop of 40. ________ for my savings, I wouldn’t be able to survive these miserable days. A. Was it not B. Were it not C. Had it been not D. Hadn’t it been 41. There was a power cut this morning. ________, I couldn’t do anything with my computer. A. Supposedly B. Presumably C. Consequently D. Essentially 42. Alarm clocks needlessly wake ______ households. I want to design something targeted at the individual sleeper. A. whole B. total C. full D. high 43. _______ both parties agree on these issues will a contract be signed soon. A. If only B. Unless C. Should D. Only if 44.—I’ve run out of cash. Could you lend me a few pounds this evening? —_____ I’ll just have to find time to get to the bank and make a withdrawal. A.I can lend you some now. B. I’m not sure I’ve got any either. C. Sorry, I haven’t got a penny in my account. D. My credit card must be left home. 45. —We’re all going to the New Skyline Restaurant for our end-of-year get-together. Can we count you in? —Oh, thanks, Sara, but _____ B. I’ve been to the A. I didn’t find you then. restaurant once. C. I’ll pass this time. D. I’ll meet you there at 5:00. Part III Cloze (10 marks) Read the following passage and fill in each blank with one word. Choose the correct word in one of the following three ways: according to the context, by using the correct form of the given word, or by using the given letters of the word. Remember to write the answers on the answer sheet. Did you know that for every 20,000 novels written, only one gets published? So the (46) ____ (likely) that I’ll ever fulfill my ambition of becoming a professional mystery writer doesn’t seem very high. But the prospect of turning my lifelong passion into my livelihood and achieving fame and (47) for ______ at the same time is just too exciting for me to be put off by dull statistics. So what does it (48) t_______ to become a writer? Reading is important—all writers need to research their genre thoroughly to familiarize themselves (49) _______ its codes and conventions. My bookshelves at home are stacked with the novels of all the great mystery writers, which I’ve read and in many cases, re-read, despite (50) _______ (know) all the time ―who’d done it‖. Of course, being a writer requires imagination. You have to develop your own personal style rather than simply copy the work of ―the greats‖. I’ve turned out (51) d________ of short crime stories for my university student magazine—some have been published, some not, but I’ve always aimed to produce original and imaginative material. Last but not (52) ________, successful writers possess enormous self-discipline. I’ve often sacrificed my social life in order to devote the necessary time and effort to producing a good quality story. And more than once that has meant (53) _______ the midnight oil. We’ve got a novel inside us. Getting it out in anywhere near publishable form is no (54) ______ task, but with imagination and determination, and the help of an expert on ―master class‖, who could possibly fail to (55) re_______ their ambition? Part IV Reading Comprehension (40 marks) Read the following passages. Each passage is followed by several questions. Respond to the questions using information from the passage. Remember to write the answers on the answer sheet. Section A (10 marks) Questions 56—60 are based on the following passage. The term culture shock was introduced for the first time in 1958 to describe the anxiety produced when a person moves to a completely new environment. This term expresses the feeling of not knowing what to do or how to do things in a new environment. This term expresses the feeling of not knowing what to do or how to do things in a new environment. We can describe culture shock as the physical and emotional discomfort a person suffers when coming to live in a place different from the place of origin. Often, the way that we live before is not accepted or considered as normal in the new place. Everything is different, for example, not speaking the language, not knowing how to use banking machines, not knowing how to use telephones, and so forth. The symptoms of culture shock can appear at different times. Although a person can experience real pain from culture shock, it is also an opportunity for growing and learning new perspectives. Culture shock can help people develop a better understanding of themselves and stimulate personal creativity. Culture shock has many stages. Each stage can be ongoing, or appear only at certain times. In the first stage, the new arrival may feel very happy about all of the new experience. This time is called the honeymoon stage. Afterward, the second stage presents itself. A person may encounter some difficulties in daily life. For example, communication difficulties may occur, such as not being understood. In this stage, there may be feelings of impatience, anger and sadness. Transition between the old methods and those of the new country is a difficult process and takes time to complete. The third stage is characterized by gaining some understanding of the new culture. A new feeling of pleasure and sense of humor may be experienced. A person may start to feel a psychological balance. The individual is more familiar with the environment and wants to belong. This starts an evaluation of the old ways versus those of the new. In the fourth stage, the person realizes that the new culture has good and bad things to offer. This stage can be one of double integration or triple integration, depending on the number of cultures that the person has to process. This integration is characterized by a more solid feeling of belonging. The person starts to define himself or herself and establish goals for living. The fifth stage is the stage that is called the reentry shock. This occurs when a person returns to the newly acquired customs are considered improper in the old culture. Questions 56—60 Complete the summary with words from the passage, changing the form where necessary, with only one word for each blank. Introduced in 1958, culture shock is a term used to (56) __________ physical and emotional discomfort people experience when they come to or live in a new place. Although many people suffer a lot from culture shock, it is an (57) _________ for personal improvement. The five stages of culture shock may last for a long time or show up once in a while. In the first stage, the (58) __________ stage, the new arrival might be OK with everything. Afterward, (59) ________ from old methods to the new one calls for time and energy. During the third and fourth stage, people may gain more understanding of the new culture and possess objective views. The double or triple integration is (60) __________ by a feeling of belonging. The last stage, called reentry shock, refers to the feeling people have when returning to their home country. Section B (10 marks) Questions 61-65 are based on the following passage. For some people, it would be unthinkable. But Gabe Henderson is finding freedom in a recent decision; he canceled his MySpace account. The 26 years old graduate student stopped his account after realizing that a lot of his online friends were really just acquaintances. ―The superficial emptiness clouded the excitement I had once felt,‖ Henderson wrote in an article. ―It seems we have lost, to some degree, the special depth that true friendship is about.‖ Journalism professor Michael Bugeja, who is a strong supporter of face-to-face communication, read Henderson’s column and saw it was a sign of hope. Though he’s not anti-technology, Bugeja often lectures students about ―interpersonal intelligence‖ —knowing when, where, and for what purpose technology is most appropriate. He points out the students he’s seen walking across campus, holding hands with each other while talking on cell phones to someone else He’s also seen them in coffee shops, surrounded by people, but staring instead at a computer screen. ―True friends,‖ he says, ―need to learn when to stop blogging and go across campus to help a friend.‖ These days, young people are more wired than ever—but they’re also getting more worried. Increasingly, they’ve had to deal with online bullies, who are posting anything from embarrassing photos to online threats. And increasingly, young people also are realizing that things they post on their profiles can come back to hurt them when applying for schools or jobs. Social networking can be an ―extremely effective‖ way to publicize events to large groups. It can even help build a sense of community on campus. People joined Facebook as a way to meet others. However, it has limitations. A good Internet profile could make even the most boring person seem some what interesting. People are also not always happy with text messages on the cell phones. Cell phones can be a quick way to say ―have a good day‖. But friends can also cancel a night out with a text message to avoid having to explain. ―Our generation needs to get over this fear of confrontation and rejection.‖ Henderson says. ―The focus needs to be on quality communication, in all ways.‖ Back in his life, Henderson is enjoying spending more face-to-face time with his friends and less with his computer. He says his decision to quit his social-networking Internet accounts was a good one. ―I’m not sacrificing friends,‖ he says, ―because if a picture, some basic information about their life and a Web page is all my friendship has become, then there was nothing to sacrifice to begin with.‖ Questions 61—63 Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F) according to the passage. 61. Although Henderson quit MySpace, most of his online friends are actually close friends. 62. According to Bugeja, young people should know when to use technology and when to stop using it. 63. Social networking helps build a sense of community but has a negative effect on young people’s life if it is used inappropriately. Questions 64—65 Answer the following questions briefly according to the passage. 64. What does Henderson lose by using social networking websites like Myspace? 65. What do young people need to overcome in order to focus on quality communication? Section C (10 marks) Questions 66—70 are based on the following passage. ―Five „ Four „ Three „ Two „ One „ See ya! ‖ and Chance McGuire, twenty-five, is airborne off a 600 –foot concrete dam in Northern California. In one second he falls 15 feet, in two seconds 60 feet, and after three seconds and 130 feet, he is flying at 66 miles an hour. McGuire is a practitioner of what he calls the king of all extreme sports. BASE—an acronym for building, antenna, span (bridge) and earth (cliffs)—jumping has one of the sporting world’s highest fatality rates: in its 18-year history, forty –six participants have been killed. Yet the sport has never been more popular, with more than a thousand jumpers in the United States, and more seeking to get into it every day. It is an activity without margin for error. If your chute malfunctions, don’t bother researching for a reserve—there isn’t time. There are no second chances. Still, the sport may be a perfect fit with the times. Americans may have more in common with McGuire than they know or care to admit. America has embarked on a national orgy of thrill seeking and risk taking. The rise of adventure and extreme sports such as BASE jumping, snowboarding, ice climbing, skateboarding, and paragliding is merely the most vivid manifestation of this new national behavior. The rising popularity of extreme sports speaks of an eagerness on the part of millions of Americans to participate in activities closer to the edge, where danger, skill, and fear combine to give weekend warriors and professional athletes alike a sense of pushing out personal boundaries. According to American Sports Data Inc., a consulting firm, participation in so-called extreme sports is way up. Snowboarding has grown 113 percent in five years and now boasts nearly 5.5 million participants. Mountain hiking, skateboarding, scuba diving—their growth curves reveal a nation that loves to play with danger. Contrast that with activities such as baseball, touch football, and aerobics, all of which were in steady decline throughout the 1990s. The pursuits that are becoming more popular have one thing in common: the perception that they are somehow more challenging than a game of touch football. ―Every human being with two legs and two arms is going to wonder how fast, how strong, how enduring he or she is,‖ says Eric Perlman, a mountaineer and film maker specializing in extreme sports. ―We are designed to experience or die.‖ Questions 66—68 Complete the following sentences with information given in the passage in a maximum of 4 words for each blank. 66. _______ rates doesn’t stop people from getting into BASE jumping every day. 67. The rise of extreme sports manifests the national behavior of _______ and ________. 68. The combination of fear, skill and danger gives both amateurs and professionals a sense of ______. Questions 69—70 Choose the best answer according to the passage. 69. Which of the following activities reveals a nation that loves to play activities closer to the edge? A. Touch football. B. Baseball. C. Scuba diving. D. Aerobics. 70. What does Eric mean by saying ―We are designed to experience or die‖? A. Life with great challenges is a meaningful one. B. Life without great experiences is very common. C. People may die while doing extreme sports. D. Extreme sports are essential parts of human life. Section D (10 marks) Questions 71—75 are based on the following passage. Albert Einstein was one of the greatest thinkers the world has ever known. He formulated theories of relativity, successfully described the nature of the universe and came up with the most famous equation in the world. David Beckham is the footballer whose skills and precision have made him one of the most gifted sportsmen of his generation. Who is more intelligent? How Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences (MI) dares us to put these two men on neighboring pedestals. Instead of regarding intelligence as a single quantity measurable by pen-and-paper tests, Gardner, an education professor at Harvard University, divides human intelligence into no fewer than eight separate categories ranging from mathematical to musical competence. (74)His ideas have provoked vigorous debate about how one defines intelligence. Gardner’s point is that quantity measures only one capacity, the sort of mental agility that is valued in academic achievement, and that this single number does not do justice to human potential. So he has created his own spheres of achievement. Some categories are easily reconcilable with general perceptions about IQ. For example, ―linguistic‖ intelligence confers a mastery of language, and is the preserve of such people as poets, writers and linguists. ―Logical mathematical‖ intelligence marks out people who take a reasoning approach to physical things, and seek underlying principles. Einstein is the standard –bearer of this group, which also includes philosophers. These two categories are the main components of what we generally think of as ―intelligence‖. ―Musical‖ intelligence characterizes musicians, composers and conductors. ―Spatial‖ intelligence is about being able to picture perspective, to visualize a world in one’s head with great accuracy. Chess players, artists and architects would rate highly in this category. Dancers, athletes and actors are lumped under the ―bodily-kinesthetic‖ heading; these individual, like Beckham, are able to control their bodies and movements very carefully. Then come two types of ―personal‖ intelligence-intrapersonal, the ability to gauge one’s own mood, feelings and mental states, and interpersonal, being able to gauge it in others and use the information. These two categories could be interpreted as emotional intelligence. Psychiatrists are particularly adept at the former, while religious leaders and politicians are seen as people who can exploit the latter. Charles Darwin is perhaps the perfect embodiment of the eighth intelligence –―naturalist‖. This label describes people with a deep understanding of the natural world and its objects. Zoologists and botanists can count themselves among this group. (75)These eight categories certainly reflect the fact that, in these areas, there is a spectrum of human ability ranging from the hopeless to the brilliant. But are these really intelligences, or could these competences be more accurately described as gifts or talents? Questions 71—73 Answer the following questions briefly according to the passage. 71. What are the main components of ―intelligence‖ we generally think of? 72. What kind of abilities does emotional intelligence involve? 73. Which intelligences are represented by Einstein and Beckham respectively? Questions 74—75 Translate the underlined sentences in the passage into Chinese. 74. His ideas have provoked vigorous debate about how one defines intelligence. 75. These eight categories certainly reflect the fact that, in these areas, there is a spectrum of human ability ranging from the hopeless to the brilliant. Part V Translation (10 marks) Translate the following sentences into English, using the hints given in brackets. Remember to write the answer on the answer sheet. 76. 既然没有退路了，我们不妨试试他的方法。(might as well) 77. 公司的利润连续三个月下滑，你如何解释,(account for) 78. 在谈到如何能取得成功时，Blair强调创造机遇比等待机遇更重要。(put emphasis on) 79. 我希望我年轻的时候也有你们这么好的机会。(虚拟语气) 80. 高昂的学费并不一定能够保证良好的教育。(guarantee) Part VI Error Correction (10 marks) Proofread the passage as required. Each indicated line contains a maximum of one error. Correct the passage in the following way: for a right line, put the sign ―?‖ in the corresponding blank; for a wrong word, underline the wrong word and write the correct one in the blank; for a missing word, mark the position of the missing word with the sign ―?‖ and write the word you believe to be missing in the blank; for an unnecessary word, cross the unnecessary word with the sign ―\‖ and put the word with the sign ―\‖ in the blank. Write the answers on the answer sheet. For example: One of my favorite writers are Charlotte Bronte. She was born in the early ___is___ nineteenth century when women had far fewer opportunities ? they have now. __than___ She lived in a small village in Yorkshire and she took great pleasure in walking ____?___ on the moors where __where__ Cash reward is a common form of motivation used by parents with high expectation to encourage their children work hard at exam time. Some 81. ________ youngsters receive payments of as much as ,100 for each A grade they obtain at GSCE. But would such ―bribes‖ be based on exam performance or 82. ________ should they, as many parents and teachers feel, be offered in recognition of a 83. ________ child’s effort, regardless of results? The later approach would solve the 84. ________ problems of how parents reward children with different levels of ability; 85. ________ imagine, for example, a family with one child who is academically gift and 86. ________ another who has learning difficulties. The dangers of result-relating incentives 87. ________ for the second child are clear; with little hope of obtaining the higher grades, the withholding of promised financial rewards would only compound of the 88.________ child’s feeling of false. However, some leading educational psychologists 89. ________ believe that parents should rely in their own judgments in such matters. They 90. ________ maintain that if parents know that money will motivate their child, then they should not be condemned for operating a system of cash payouts. Part VII IQ Test (5 marks) There are five IQ Test questions in this part. Write the answers on the answer sheet. 91. Which two words starting with ―P‖ and ―O‖ contain the most letters? 92. What is at: The beginning of eternity The end of time and space The beginning of every end And the end of every place? 93. L O V E What’s the phrase that is represented by the picture? 94. Which picture should replace the question mark? ? 95. Your sock drawer contains ten pairs of white socks and ten pairs of black socks. If you’re only allowed to take one sock from the drawer at a time and you can’t see the color of the sock you’re taking until you’ve taken it, how many socks do you have to take before you’re guaranteed to have at least one matching pair? Part VIII Writing (30 marks) I (10 marks) WRITERS REQUIRED We are looking for people to write for this magazine about places of interest in their local area which would be of interest to an international readership. We would like to hear from anyone who has: —an interest in travelling to places of interest; —some personal experience of writing; Send us a letter of application, explaining why you think you are suitable. You should write no fewer than 100 words on the answer sheet. Use ―Frank‖ instead of your real name. II (20 marks) China is now experiencing the largest mass migration of people, an estimated 230 million (2010), from the countryside to cities in history. They’ve brought economy boom to cities and life improvement to their own families. However, this migration leaves land in the countryside uncultivated and children of migrant workers poorly educated. How do you think can the migration in China have a balanced development? Write your article in about 140 words in an appropriate style on the answer sheet Part I Listening Comprehension (30 marks) Section A CBBAC Section B BAACB CABCB Section C (5 marks) ACABA Section D (10 marks) 21. disruption 22. airpressure23. slow down 24.immune system25.stimulates 26. bear in mind 27.circulation 28. decreases 29. Consult 30. side effects Part II Vocabulary and Structure (15 marks) 31—35 BDABC 36—40 BDDAB 41—45 CADBC Part III Cloze (10 marks) 46. likelihood 47.fortune 48. take 49. with 50. knowing 51. dozens 52. least 53. burning 54.easy/simple 55. realize Part IV Reading Comprehension (40 marks) Section A (10 marks) 56. describe 57. opportunity 58. honeymoon 59. transition 60. characterized Section B (10 marks) 61. F 62. T 63. T 64. The special depth that true friendship is about. 65. They need to get over fear of confrontation and rejection. Section C (10 marks) 66.High fatality 67. thrill seeking; risk taking 68. pushing out personal boundaries 69. C 70. A Section D (10 marks) 71. ―Linguistic‖intelligence and―Logical mathematical‖intelligence. 72. The ability to gauge one’s own mood, feelings and mental states, and the ability to gauge it in others and use the information. 73. ―Logical mathematical‖intelligence and the ―bodilykinesthetic‖ intelligence. 74. 他的观点引发了激烈的讨论，应如何定义智力。 75. 这八个类别的智力无疑反映了这样的事实，即这些类别中都有从无能到聪慧 的各种不同能力的人 2013 National English Contest for College Students (Level C - Preliminary) (总分:150分 答题时间:120分钟) Part I Listening Comprehension (30 marks) Section A (5 marks) In this section, you will hear five short conversations. Each conversation will be read only once. At the end of each conversation, there will be a twenty-second pause. During the pause, read the question and the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the center. , Why didn’t the man go to see Macbeth last week? , He didn’t manage to get a ticket. , He had to attend a conference. , He had a better production to watch. , What does ―Fill Me In‖ refer to in this conversation? , A type of upgraded mobile phone. , A well-selling magazine. , A writer’s new book series. , Why doesn’t the woman like the bag? , She doesn’t like the pattern. , It’s not easy to carry. , It’s too big for her. , What makes a bad CV according to the man? , Fake information. B. Terrible writing. C. Undesirable length. , How will Cathy continue her Spanish learning? , She’s going to make a friend in Spain. , She’ll communicate with a Spanish friend in Spain. , She’ll practice speaking Spanish with an English friend. Section B (10 marks) In this section, you will hear two long conversation. Each conversation will be read only once. At the end of each conversation, there will be a one-minute pause. During the pause, read the question and the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the center. Conversation One , What traffic accident are the speakers talking about? , A kid was knocked down by a car. , Two cars crashed into a shop. , A car ran into a wrong place. , Why did the accident happen according the woman? , There were many shops around. , The crossing is in a wrong place. , There was no crossing here. , Which of the following is the suggestion they made? , More traffic lights should be installed. , A speed camera should be mounted. , More policemen should patrol that area. , Where, as the woman mentioned, has got improved traffic? , Her own neighborhood. , Her big brother’s neighborhood. , Her parents’ neighborhood. , How was the man punished for his traffic offence? , He was fined 100 pounds with extra penalty points. , He had to pay 150 pounds and got 6 penalty points. , He finally paid 600 pounds without any penalty points. Conversation Two , Why is the expert opposed to the view that memory aids make your memory worse? , There is no evidence showing that memory aids are invalid. , Human beings’ brain functions mainly through memory aids in an effective way. , Memory aids encourage an organized approach which helps the brain function effectively. , What is interview’s attitude towards the idea that visual image help the memory , It is hard to believe. , It is nothing strange. , It is obviously nonsense. , Who developed the system of memory aids centuries ago? , Inhabitants on an isolated island. , The Ancient Greeks. , A great psychologists. , How does mapping out notes affect the brain? , It is helpful in reflecting the way people link information in the brain. , It prevents people from arranging things logically. , It makes people’s brain function the opposite way. , What tends to affect people’s ability to think clearly? , Upbringing and innate differences. , Worry and anxiety. , Their aptitudes. Section C (5 marks) In this section, you will hear five short news items. After each item, which will be read only once, there will be a pause. During the pause, read the question and the three choices marked A, B and C, and decide which is the best answer. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the center. , How can social media influence the presidential election in the USA according to the latest research? , It can help voters to choose their president. , It can help to ensure the fairness of the elections. , It can help to increase the number of voters. , What honorary title has Yaya Toure been granted? , The African Player of the Year. , 212 Star of the Confederation of African Football. , The Ivory Coast star. , Why did Reshma Saujani set up the organization ―Girls Who Code‖? , To raise women’s status in the field of science. , To improve girls’ aptitude and performance in STEM. , To arouse girls’ interest in science and technology. , Which tablet computer’s hardware inside is more powerful? , The CNET Kum. B. The Google Nexus 7. C. The Apple iPad mini. , What does the company announce that it can do for the United States? , It can reduce the amount of plastic waste. , It can help to recycle the plastic waste. , It can increase the amount of exports. Section D (10 marks) In this section, you will hear a short passage. There are 10 missing words or phrases. Fill in the blanks with the exact words or phrases you hear. The passage will be read twice. Remember to write the answers on the answer sheet. If you (21) ____ smooth skin that glows with youth, the chances are that at some point you will have heard the exhortation to drink lots of water in order to (22) ____ those evil toxins and keep your skin healthy. The exact amount people suggest varies. US – based advice (23) ____ eight glasses a day, while in hotter climates people are advised to drink to more to (24) ____ higher rates of sweating. But regardless of the exact volume of water suggested, the principle behind the advice remains the same --- taking extra water on board will keep your skin hydrated. In other words, water acts like a moisturizer, but from the inside out. This is such a common idea you might be surprised at the (25) ____ to back up. You might expect there to be countless studies where people are (26) ____ two groups, one assigned to sip water all day, the other to drink a normal amount. Then the smoothness of the skin could be (27) ____ a month or so later to establish whether sipping more lead to smoother skin. In fact such studies are rare, partly because water can’t be patented, so it is hard to find anyone to fund such research when there will be no new (28) ____ or cosmetic to sell that could repay the costs. A review by the dermatologist Ronni Wolf at the Kaplan Medical Center in Israel found just one study looking at the effect of long-term water intake on the skin. But the results were (29) ____. After four weeks, the group who drank mineral water showed a decrease in skin density, which some believe suggests the skin is retaining more moisture, while those who drank tap water showed an increase in skin density. But regardless of the type of water they drank, it made no difference to their (30) ____ or to the smoothness of their skin. Part II Vocabulary and Structure (15 marks) There are 15 incomplete sentences in this section. For each blank there are four choices marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one that best completes the sentence. Then mark the corresponding letter on the answer sheet with a single line through the center. 31. The new star said to the journalists that she ____ the opportunity to show that she could play a serious film role. A. greeted B. rejoiced C. welcomed D. cheered 32. We haven’t really ____ a solution to the problem yet, which makes the boss really frustrated. A. built up B. fallen back on C. brought over D. come up with 33. Personally, I am ____ banning cigarette smoking completely, especially in public areas. A. in touch with B. apart from C. in favor of D. regardless of 34. Until a firm agreement has been reached, I am not ____ to accepting the offer. A. accustomed B. dedicated C. committed D. entitled 35. The government is making every effort to ____ an economic crisis, but it seems nothing could help. A. eliminate B. avert C. impede D. swerve 36. ____ a serious crime, what exactly should you do? A. Unless you witness B. If you were to witness C. If only you witness D. since you witness 37. During examinations candidates are always supposed to stay in seats, keep their eyes on the work, ____ to anyone. A. and not speak B. but could not speak C. rather than speakD. instead of speaking 38. Realizing that he hadn’t got enough money and ____ to borrow any from his parents, he decided to sell his house. A. wanted not B. not to want C. wanting not D. not wanting 39. There’s no point waiting here any longer. We ____ go and have something to eat. A. can hardly B. are bound to C. might as well D. will have to 40. While many people may refer to up-to-minute news, it is unlikely that television and the Internet ____ the newspapers completely. A. will replace B. replace C. are replacing D. have replaced 41. She married a very nice young architect from Belfast, ____ she met on a bus during her journey to Northern Ireland. A. who B. when C. which D. where 42. It is a kind of illness that can result in total blindness if ____ A. to leave untreated B. is left untreated C. leaving untreated D. left untreated 43. ----I’m so disappointed with my son! He just wouldn’t practice the piano! ----Take it easy. You can lead ____ to water, but you can’t make it drink. , a duck B. a horse C. a cow D. a dog 44. ----Good morning, Madam! I’d like some information about the course. ----Certainly. ____ , I’m afraid I don’t know more than you either. , Is there anything I can do for you? , What exactly would you like to know? , How much information did you know? 45. ---- How do you feel about countries that don’t try to reduce global warming? ---- ____, those countries care more about money than saving the planet. , As far as I’m concerned B. It’s none of our business C. We’re not to blame D. Things are under control Part III Cloze (10 marks) Read the following passage and fill in each blank with one word. Choose the correct word in one of the following three ways: according to the context, by using the correct form of the given word, or by using the given letters of the word. Remember to write the answers on the answer sheet. According to recent surveys, 72% of all Americans believe that the United States government is (46) hi____ information about UFOs. Almost 68% of people think that the government has secret knowledge of extraterrestrial life. It is not (47) ____ (surprise) that the government has come under more and more (48) pr____ to declassify its UFO records and make them public. A variety of different groups have been involved in these efforts. One group to become involved is called CFI, the Coalition for Freedom of Information, John Podesta, who was White House Chief of Staff during Bill Clinton’s (49) ____(president), is one of the many high-powered people active in this group. CFI’s aim is not to prove the (50) ____(exist) of extraterrestrial life, but to make it easier for scientists in general to study unexplained aerial phenomena. Podesta and his group has asked the Pentagon to declassify its UFO records and therefore provide scientists (51) ____ data that will help in the study of UFOs. CFI has requested the release of information on several UFO cases, starting with the Kecksburg, Pennsylvania, incident. This incident took (52) ____ in 1965 when a large acorn-shaped object, the size of a small car, crashed in Pennsylvania. Some analysts say it could have been the spacecraft Kosmos 96 that had been launched towards Venus by the Soviet Union, but failed to escape Earth’s (53) g____. Others say the object did not look anything like spacecraft built on Earth in 1965. (54) Add____, the people of Kecksburg want to know what happened. On that (55) af____, hundreds of eyewitnesses watched a fiery streak of light descend from the sky towards Earth. Officials explained that nothing was found or recovered and that maybe the fireball in the sky was a meteor. But many witnesses say they saw a number of military personnel from the Army and the Air Force search the woods, and later that evening, saw a large military tractor-trailer coming from the area carrying a large object under a tarp. Part IV Reading Comprehension (40 marks) Read the following passage. Each passage is followed by several questions. Respond to the questions using information from the passage. Remember to write the answers on the answer sheet. Section A (10 marks) Questions 56-60 are based on the following passage. The average automatic teller machine (ATM) is not very smart. It will give money to anyone who has the right card and punches four or five keys in the right order. Some analysts estimate that as many as 30% of ATM transaction worldwide are cases of theft. To increase security at cash machines, some banks have tried to make their ATMs a little smarter. A small camera on the machine looks directly into the eye of every customer. It scans one iris and compares the tiny patterns of ridges, dots, and other features to a code in its computer. If there is a match, the ATM will start counting out cash. If not, a message is automatically sent to the nearest police station. Iris-scanning is one fast-growing form of biometric identification --- determining who someone is by examining features the body. One of the earliest biometric techniques was fingerprinting. The line on fingerprints are unique to each person, so not even identical twins have the same fingerprints. Fingerprinting has become famous as a way of finding out who committed a crime, but it very often fails. A careful criminal can swear gloves, avoid touching thing, or even alter his fingerprints by burning, cutting, or scraping them. In the search for a more reliable system, security experts have focused on the eye. Like a fingerprint, every iris is, for all practical purposes, unique. Each person’s right iris is even different from his or her left one. A low-cost digital camera, like the kind installed at ATM machines, can easily detect hundreds of different features in the iris. The chance of two irises having the same features is close to zero. Tests have shown that iris-scanners are very hard to fool. They can tell the difference between a real iris and a false one. They can see right through colored contact lenses, eyeglasses, and even mirrored sunglasses. Although many criminal are willing to burn or cut their fingers in pursuit of the perfect crime, few would be willing or able to alter their irises. To make iris-scanning work, a computerized database has to match certain iris features with certain people. This means that each ATM customer has to allow a bank to photograph his or her iris and keep that highly personal information in a computer. Some people have worried, however, that an increased use of iris-scanning will lead to a dangerous loss of privacy. By mounting iris-scan cameras in public places, governments could track a private citizen all day long without the person’s knowledge. This would be a great advantage to the police, but it could also give corrupt officials a new way to control their opponents. The military’s development of tiny robots suggests that government iris-scanners could even invade private homes! Questions 56-60 Complete the summary with words from the passage, changing the form where necessary, with only one word for each blank. ATM transactions are often cases of theft, where an unauthorized user takes (56) ____. To decrease insecurity, some banks have installed iris-scanning machines at ATMs. These small cameras scan the user’s iris, recording its features and (57) ____ them to a digital file. Every person has a (58) ____ iris, making iris identification highly reliable. Earlier efforts at biometric identification often relied on fingerprints. However, fingerprints can easily be (59) ____ through cutting, burning or scrapping. Iris scanners are so effective that they can even see through contact lenses and mirrored sunglasses. Use of iris scanners would provide great advantages to the police. However, others worry about a loss of (60) ____. Section B (10 marks) Questions 61-65 are based on the following passage. Seed catalogues feature hundreds of flowering species. For the persons just beginning garden this can be bewildering, and below are the details of some popular choices, nearly all of which should be sown in the spring. With the exception of busy lizzies, which need a little care, they are all very easy to grow from seed. Dahlias These are sturdy plants bearing showy flowers in a wide range of rather gaudy colors. Sow in a frame in April and plant the seedlings out when frosts are over. Dahlias flower throughout the summer and into the autumn. When autumn frosts begin to make them look unhappy, you should dig up the tuberous roots and save them. A frost-free loft, shed or garage is the ideal place. The following spring you plant the tubers instead of sowing seed again. Lupins Lupins are hardy perennials. This means that the plants will stay in your garden and carry on flowering year after year. Seed sown in April will usually give you some spikes of colors in the first summer, and year by year the plants get bigger and the flowering stems get taller and grander. Selective breeding has led to the introduction of some fine, bicolored varieties in some dazzling shades. The short-lived flowers make a real misunderstanding spectacle. Busy lizzies Like dahlias, busy lizzies need to be started off under glass, as they cannot stand frost, and panting out is best done in May. Outdoor flowering ends in September, so beat the frosts and bring your favorite specimens indoors to give your home some sinter color! Indoors they will carry on flowering indefinitely, though you may like to plant them out again when spring returns. Like pansies (below) they do very well in sun or shade, but the soil must be moist. Most varieties grow to be a height of only 20 cm or so. Potentillas Potentillas are hardy shrubs. In other words, the woody branches spring from ground level—there is no central trunk. Seed is probably best sown in autumn, in which case you should keep the plants in a sheltered spot until April offers favorable conditions for planting out. Once flowering begins in early summer the best varieties (such as Melton Fire) will stay in bloom almost ceaselessly for years on end while at the same time spreading out to provide ground cover or a low hedge. Pansies Pansies have a good long flowering season year after year, and some varieties can be sown in spring to give truly splendid results the first autumn. Unlike dahlias and lupins, which can easily grow a meter tall, pansies grow no higher than 10 or 20 cm. Their soil, position and moisture requirements are just like those of busy lizzies but pansies differ in being hardy. Give them a try! Questions 61-63 Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F) according to the passage. 61. Both dahlias and lupins, which are sown in April, need protecting from frost. 62. Brought indoors in autumn, dahlias, busy lizzies and potentillas will carry on flowering almost non-stop. 63. Among all the flowers busy lizzies are not very easy to grow from seed. Section C (10 marks) Questions 66-70 are based on the following passage. When looking for love, people may go to some extreme lengths. They might go on blind dates set up by family and friends. They might write personal ads to place in newspapers. Or they might use a computer to help them in their search for a soul mate by joining an online dating services. Some people have even tried to find their perfect match through game shows on television. Many of these TV dating shows, including The Bachelor and Who Wants to Marry a Millionaire? have proved to be ratings blockbusters, with millions of viewers watching each week to find out which of the contestants will find true love. Of all these game shows, perhaps the one with the most unexpected ending was Mr. Right, which was shown in England in 2002. On the show, a bachelor, thirty-five-year-old Lance Gerrard-Wright, dated fifteen women to find the one who was his ideal partner. The host of the show was Ulrika Johnson, an English celerity originally from Sweden. For seven weeks on the show, Gerrard-Wright took turns going on dates with each of the women, taking them to expensive restaurants and exotic locations. He even met the women’s families and introduced them to his own. Then at the end of each episode, he would choose between one and three of the contestants with whom he had felt the least compatible, and say goodbye to them. At one point during the series, one contestant volunteered to leave because she said she didn’t find him attractive. After two dates she said she had had enough, and she couldn’t see it working. ―He wasn’t my cup of tea.‖ In another episode the woman he was on a date with burst into tears when he called her by another contestant’s name. ―You called me by another girl’s name. I can’t believe you did that. I really liked you,‖ she sobbed. But in the final episode, the woman he eventually chose decided she didn’t want to marry him after all. ―I think you’ve chosen me because you have to choose someone,‖ she said. Maybe this was because she already knew he had fallen in love---with the show’s host! After leaving the show, Gerrard-Wright and Johnson were seen dining together and attending parties around London more and more often. Finally, on May 1, 2003, Gerrard-Wright proposed to Johnson on the steps of St. Paul’s Cathedral. And she accepted his proposal right away, although it was a conditional acceptance. Johnson has two children from previous relationships—an eight-year-old son, Cameron, and a two-year-old daughter, Bo. She had to make sure that they agreed to the marriage. Luckily, they did. Gerrard-Wright said, ―In the end the show did work for me. I grabbed an opportunity to get a girlfriend and I did. Ulrika’s gorgeous.‖ Questions 66-68 Complete the following sentences with information given in the passage in a maximum of 2 words for each blank. 66. Lance Gerrard-Wright went to ____ to go on the show Mr. Right in order to find his perfect match. 67. On the show, Lance had the opportunity to date many gorgeous women among whom there might be one that he was almost ____. 68. Ulrika accepted Lance’s proposal ____ that her children agreed to their marriage as well. Questions 69-70 Choose the best answer according to the passage. 69. Which of the following did NOT happen on the show? A. Lance went on dates with several women. B. The candidates went to some very good restaurants. C. Ulrika consulted her parents before she made her decision. D. The women met Lance’s family. 70. What happened after seven weeks of doing the show? A. All of the women found their beloved. B. Lance started to date with the show’s host. C. One of the women on the show couldn’t help crying. D. Ulrika asked Lance to marry her. Section D (10 marks) Questions 71-75 are based on the following passage. Alaska is disappearing slowly but surely. Since the 1950s, it is estimated that as much as 15 percent of Alaska’s area has disappeared. But how can a whole state be disappearing? One reason for Alaska’s gradual disappearance is the melting its glaciers. According to one geologist at the US Geological Survey, about 98 percent of Alaska’s glaciers are either unmoving or diminishing. This diminishing seems mainly due to the increase in global temperatures. Since the 1960s, the average year-round temperature has increased by 5?. Furthermore, the average winter temperature has increased by 8?. Presently, an estimated 24 cubic miles of ice is disappearing from Alaskan glaciers every year. It may be even more in the near future, as some scientists predict that the average world temperature could go up 2.5 to 10?by the year 2010. Another problem contributing to Alaska’s gradual disappearance is its permafrost. (74) Much of the land in Alaska was permanently frozen, or frozen for most of the year, thus maintaining its integrity. Now, the thawing permafrost is causing a number of problems on land. Roads and utility poles are collapsing. Also, the hard permafrost which originally prevented beaches from eroding during violent storms is now melting. Affected villages are forced to relocate. For villages on small low islands, one terrible storm could wipe out the entire community. The melting permafrost and increasing temperature are also having a negative impact on the forests of Alaska. As the permafrost under the forests melts, insects that normally don’t turn up until the warmer seasons are appearing sooner. The spruce-bark beetle, for example, is increasing in numbers as a result of global warming. It usually takes about two years for these beetles to grow and reproduce in a very cold weather. However, due to the increase in temperatures, spruce-bark beetles are damaging as many trees in one year as they previously damaged in two. At this rate, Alaska’s forest won’t survive the turn of the century. Some scientists believe that human activity is linked to a global increase in weather temperature. Whether the rising temperature are caused by human activity or natural changes, the fact remains that Alaska is warming. Some others argue that global warming may be a normal trend on the Earth’s temperature chart. (75) One theory argues that we are near the end of a so-called ―Little Ice Age‖, and the return of the glaciers is natural result of this cycle. Whether natural or produced by humans, there is little hope for the immediate future of glaciers as we know them. Horribly, this could be a preview of what will happen to the rest of the world in the next century. Questions 71-73 Answer the following questions briefly according to the passage. 71. What are disappearing in Alaska actually? 72. How much ice is melting each year according to the survey? 73. Why do insects damage more trees than before? Questions 74-75 Translate the underlined sentences in the passage into Chinese. 74. Much of the land in Alaska was permanently frozen, or frozen for most of the year, thus maintaining its integrity 75. One theory argues that we are near the end of a so-called ―Little Ice Age‖, and the return of the glaciers is natural result of this cycle. Whether natural or produced by humans, there is little hope for the immediate future of glaciers as we know them. Part V Translation (10 marks) Translate the following sentences into English, using the hints given in brackets. Remember to write the answers on the answer sheet. 76. 宴会时间就要到了，但她仍纠结于是否应该去。 (dilemma) 77. 充足的睡眠不仅能使我们的身体得到休息，还能提高我们的智力。 (倒装) 78. 最近，有关空气污染严重的问题引起了公众的广泛关注。 (arouse) 79. 在大城市寻找梦想的年轻人承受着巨大的生活压力。 (suffer„ from) 80. 教授告诉我们，这次面试者将优先考虑有实际经验的学生。 (priority) Part VI Error Correction (10 marks) Proofread the passage as required. Each indicated line contains a maximum of one error. Correct the passage in the following way: for a right line, put the sign “?” in the corresponding blank; for a wrong word, underline the wrong word and write the correct one in the blank; for a missing word, mark the position of the missing word with the sign “?” and write the word you believe to be missing in the blank; for an unnecessary word, cross the unnecessary word with the sign “\” and put the word with the sign “\” in the blank. Write the answers on the answer sheet. For example: One of my favorite writers are Charlotte Brontë. She was born in the early _is_ Nineteenth century when women had far fewer opportunities ? they have now. _than_ She lived in a small village in Yorkshire and she took great pleasure in walking _?_ on the moors where near her home. Where If we read English language newspapers or listen to newspapers who use English in all different parts of the world, we will quickly develop 81.____ the impression that one form of English is so widely used that will 82.____ soon unite all the different varieties of English which exist. Is there enough evidence for support this impression? It is in fact misled in several 83.____ ways since a version of English which is exactly the same everywhere and 84.____ has the same high status throughout the world do not yet exist. 85.____ For one thing, people who’s first language is English value their linguistic 86.____ Identity. Therefore, they try to preserve it from the influence of other forms of English. New Zealand, for example, do not want to speak like Australians. In addition, there are too much regional differences in 87.____ vocabulary of the language to be the same everywhere. People need 88.____ specialized words in order to discuss locally politics, business, culture 89.____ and natural history. Lastly, there is the fact that learners of English may be teaching in either American or British forms. 90.____ Part VII IQ Test (5 marks) There are five IQ Test questions in this part. Write the answers on the answer sheet. 91. Silence is to gold what speech is to ____ A. steel B. platinum C. Bronze D. silver 92. What well-known phrase is suggested by the following word picture? STAND I 93. Why should we never ask balloons for advice? 94. What stays hot even if put in a refrigerator? 95. Which shape completes the larger square? , , B. C. D. Part VIII (30 marks) I (10 marks) You are a student you are looking for a summer job in Beijing. You saw an advertisement as below. You believe you have the right experience and decide to apply for the job. Read the advertisement carefully and write a letter of application. Write in 100-120 words on the answer sheet. II (20 marks) International travel is becoming easier, faster and cheaper for many people nowadays. Write a composition to discuss the advantages of the growth of international travel both for travelers and for the countries they visit. You are asked to give your own views and write in an appropriate style in 150 words. Write your answer on the answer sheet. 2013 National English Contestfor College Students (Level C - Preliminary) 参考答案及作文评 —5 ABCCB 分 Part I Listening Comprehension (30 marks) Section A (5 marks) 1 Section B (10 marks) 6—10 ABBCB 11—15 CABAB Section C (5 marks) 16—20 CACBB Section D (10 marks) 21. yearn for 22. flush out 23. tends to recommend 24. compensate for 25. lack of evidence 26. separated into 27. assessed 28. medication —35 29. contradictory 30. wrinkles Part II Vocabulary and Structure (15 marks) 31 —40 BADCA 41—45 ADBCA Part III Cloze (10 marks) 46. hiding 47. surprising CDCCB 36 48. pressure 49. presidency 50. existence 51. with 52. place 53. gravity 54. Additionally 55. afternoon Part IV Reading Comprehension (40 marks) Section A (10 marks) 56. money 57. comparing 58. unique 59. altered 60. privacy Section B (10 marks) 61. F 62. F 63. T 64. Pansies are more hardy than busy lizzies. 65. Potentillas. Section C (10 marks) 66. extreme lengths / great lengths 67. compatible with 68. on condition 69. C 70. B Section D (10 marks) 71. Glaciers and forests. 72. 24 cubic miles of ice. 73. They have increased in numbers. 74. 阿 拉斯加的大部分土地曾经是常年冰冻，或是一年中多数时间都保持冰冻状态，以此保持它的“小冰河时代”的结尾，因此完整。 - 1 - 75. 有一种理论认为，我们正处于一个所谓的冰川消退是这个周期的自然结 ———希望渺茫。 果。无论是由于自然因素还是人类因素所致，冰川的近期未来已如我们所知 Part V Translation (10 marks) 76. The banquet is going to start but she is still in a dilemma about whether she should go or not. 77. Not only can ample sleep relax our bodies but also improve our intelligence. 78. Serious air pollution problems have aroused wide public concerns recently. 79. Youngsters who look for dreams in big cities are suffering from huge pressure of life. 80. The professor told us that the interviewers would give priority to students with “沉默是practical experience. Part VII IQ Test (5 marks) 91. D 解释:西方谚语 ”，故选D。 92. I understand 解释:图片中单词“I”在“STAND”下面，故为金，雄辩为银 “谎言、大话”，I understand。 93. Because it蒺s full of hot air. 解释:hot air 意为 “hot air”，一语双关，因此不要“向气球征求建议”。 94. pepper 解释:气球中充满了 “热”，也意为“辣”。 95. A 解释:三行图胡椒/辣椒放在冰箱中仍然是辣的，hot既意为 形中，每行都有三格，每个方格中有一条线将格一分为二，每格中亦有一个小图案在颜 色 上有变化，或全黑，或全白，或带斜线。若要第二行符合此规律，需在所缺图中含有一条中 分线，所 含小图形应为白色小方块，且该中分线平分该小方块。只有A 符合此条件。 Part VIII Writing (30 marks) Omitted. 作文评分标准 一、评分: 1. 本题满分为I 10 分;II 20 分，按四个档次给分。 2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属 档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调 整本档次，最后给分。 3. I 词数少于100 或 多于140的，II 词数少于140或多于180 的，从总分中减去2 分。 4. 如书写较差，以致影 响阅卷，将分数降低一档。 二、各档次给分范围和要求: 第四档(很好):I 9-10分; II 16-20 分 完全符合写作格式的要求，覆盖所有内容要点，达思想清楚，文字通顺， 连贯性很好，基本上无词汇 和语法错误。 第三档(好):I 6-8 分;II 11-15 分 基本符合写作格式的要求，有个别地方表达思想 不够清楚，文字基本通顺、连贯，有少量词汇和语法 错误。 第二档(一般):I 3-5 分; II 6-10 分 未恰当完成写作格式的要求，漏掉内容要点，表达思想不清楚，文字多处出现 词汇和语法错误，影响 了对写作内容的理解。 第一档(差):I 1-2 分;II 1-5 分 未 完成写作格式的要求，明显遗漏主要内容，表达思想紊乱，有较多词汇和语法的重大错误， 未能将 信息传达给读者。 0分 白卷;作文与题目毫不相关;内容太少，无法评判;所写 内容无法看清。