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英美概况习题

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英美概况习题英美概况习题 Chapter I Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. In area, the United States is the ________ largest country in the world. ndrdththa. 2 b. 3 c. 4. d. 5 2. The Midwest in the US refers to the region ________________. a. west of the Mississippi Valley...
英美概况习题
英美概况习题 Chapter I Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. In area, the United States is the ________ largest country in the world. ndrdththa. 2 b. 3 c. 4. d. 5 2. The Midwest in the US refers to the region ________________. a. west of the Mississippi Valley b. west of the Appalachian Mountains c. east of the Rocky Mountains d. around the Great Lakes and the upper Mississippi Valley 3. The Backbone of North America refers to the __________________. a. Appalachina Mountains b. Rocky Mountains c. Cascade Mountains d. d. Sierra Nevada Mountains. 4. Death Valley is on the western edge of _____________. a. the Great Basin b. California c. the Rocky Mountains d. the Sierra Nevada Mountains 5. Which region might have a dust storm in summer? a. The Deep South. b. The Middle West. c. The Great Plains. d. The Central Valley of California. 6. Which area has the highest rainfall in the US? a. The region around the Great Lakes. b. The western part of Washington State. c. The Middle Atlantic States. d. The Central Valley of California. 7. The US primary suppliers of foreign oil are the following countries except _____. a. Canada b. Japan c. Venezuela d. Saudi Arabia 8. The US largest open – pit copper- mining center is in ________. a. California b. Utah c. Montana d. South Dakota. II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The United States is bordered on the north by ___________, on the south by ________ and ________, on the east by ____________, and on the west by __________. 2. According to the text, the large territory of the continental US is divided into three basic areas: A. ___________________________________________. B. ___________________________________________ C. ___________________________________________. 3. The Middle Atlantic States are the ____________ populated region in the US, where the land is _______________ and _________________. 4. The Central Valley of California is a highly _________ area, which produced enormous amounts of _____________ and ______________. 5. Most production of oil and natural gas in the US comes from offshore areas of ______ and _____, and from onshore areas of __________, _________, and ____________. Her big consumption of energy now has mode America _____ in oil supply. The US reliance of foreign oil has remained consistently in the _____________ range. 6. The United States has ____ trouble caused by the shortage of ____ water. Farmlands in the US making up about ______- of the arable lands in the world, and they are among the _____ and most _________. III. Questions for discussion 1. How many states are there in the untied states? And which two states are geographically separated from the others? 2. What are the general characters of the Rocky Mountains and the Appalachian Mountains? 3. Do you think that geography has played an important role in the economic development of the United States? Explain. Chapter II Exercises I. Chose the correct answer. 1. The over 3 million of early Americans in 1790 were mostly of __________ ancestry. a. Spanish b. French c. British d. Dutch 2. How many immigrants were legally received by the US each year during the 1980s? a. About 270,000. b. About 700,000. c. About 675,000 d,. About 8,000,000. 3. The official racial segregation continued to be the law of the US until _________. a. 1860. b. 1863 c. 1918 d. 19945 4. American Indians now mainly live in the ________. a. South b. West c. Midwest d. Northest 5. The majority of American Hispanics are from the following countries except ______. a. Mexico b. Cuba c. Spain d. Puerto Rico . 6. Accrding to the text, which region now leads in percentage increase in population ? a. The Norheast b. The Great Plains. C. The South d. The West . 7. According to the 1994 US census, the second most populous state in the US is ______. a. California b. New York c. Texas d. Washington 8. The trend in migration from cities to suburbs now prevailed in all regions except ____. a. the Northeast b. the South c. the Midwest d. the west II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The United States in the ____most populous nation in the world. Her resident population reached the ____ million mark in 1990. 2. Prior to _________ anyone from any country could enter the US freely and take up ___ there. Later the US Congress passed laws restricting immigration on the basis of ______, ______, and _______________. The 19952 Immigration and Nationality Act reaffirmed ______ as the chief criterion for eligibility and established a preferential system for _________- workers and for _________ of the US citizens. For many years the US restricted to total number of immigrant to _____________- each year, although the real immigrants numbered much greater than the limit. The 1990 Immigration Act limits the total number of immigrants to ______ from 1992 to 1995 and _________ thereafter. 3. The first blacks arrived in Jamestown in 1619 as ___________, but soon after 1619 they were brought to colonies as __________. The blacks were formally freed in __________, but continued to suffer the institutionalized segregation for about a century. Today many blacks still live in the _________, some have entered the middle class, but one – third of all back families still live below the _______. 4. The Chinese – Americans have proved to the ________ and _________. They are now viewed as a ―_________________‖ in the US. According to the 1990 US census, there were over 1.6 million Chinese- Americans living in the US. This figure is more than __________ what it was in 1980. III. Questions for discussion 1. Why is the United States known as a ―melting pot‖? 2. What factors cause the Americans to move frequently within the United States? 3. Why do many Americans now migrate from cities to suburbs? Chapter III Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. According to the text, the ancestors of the present American Indians came from ______________. a. Europe b. Africa c. Asia d. Mongolia. 2. Which is not correct to explain the reasons for the sudden daring exploration of the thunknown in the mid- 15 century? a. The ambition for the vast lands. b. The strong desire for Eastern goods. c. The improvements in navigation and naval architecture. d. The great spirit of adventure started by the Renaissance. 3. On his voyage of 1492, Columbus expected to reach _______. a. the New world b. the West Indies c. India d. America 4. Among the following navigators who discovered the routs to India? a. Christopher Columbus. b. Vasco da Gama. c. Bartholomeu Diaz d. Ferdinand Magellan. 5. Who was sent by the English King to explore the new way to the East? a. Jacquest Cartier b. John Cabot . c. Bartholomeu Diaz. d. Ferdinand Magellan. 6. Which colony in the following was not founded first by the English? a. Virginia b. Massachusetts. c. New York d. Georgia. 7. The breadbasket colonies include the following ones except ________. a. New York b. Pennsylvania c. Maryland d. Virginia 8. The last one of the 13 colonies was ________ , which was established in 1733. a. North Carolina b. South Carolina c. Georgia d. Maryland II. Fill in the blanks. 1. In 1488 Bartholomeu Diaz, sailing under the ___________ flag, went to _____________ at the southern Africa. In 1492 Christopher Columbus, financed by the ruler of _______, sailed west across the ________ Ocean and discovered the islands of __________. He was convinced he had found the continent of _________. 2. The South America was discovered by ________________ who showed the lands he arrived in was a new continent. Before long the land was named ____________ after his name. 3. Jamestown, the first permanent English settlement, was founded in _______. In 1620, _________ and others arrived in Plymouth, Massachusetts. They drew up ___________________, which was a plan for a democratic government. 4. By 1775, the 13 colonies in North America could be classified as the following three kinds. Specify how the governors were chosen in each. a. Royal: ___________________________. b. Proprietary: ________________________. c. Self-governing: __________________________. 5. Because the New England colonies were difficult of farming, they became a center for ________ and ______________. The middle colonies were known as the __________________, which produced ________ and ________ as the major staple. The southern colonies developed a _________ system. The main crop in the South was _______. Much later, __________ became important crop. III. Questions for Discussion 1. Discuss the pre-Columbian cultures in the Americas. 2. Why did the discovery of the New World before Columbus not exert great influence in the world at that time? th3. Why did so many English people move to the New World in the 17 century? 4. What was the social structure of the 13 colonies? 5. Why did not the American Indians become slaves during the colonial days? Chapter IV Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1.There was a great change in British policy towards the 13 colonies after ______. a. 1760 b. 1763 c. 1764 d. 1767 2.Which Act first set a large scale of opposition in the colonies? a. The Sugar Act of 1764. b. The Stamp Act of 1765. c. The Quartering Act of 1765. d. The Tea Act of 1773. 3.The Tea Act of 1773 was passed by the British Parliament in order to ________. a. get more money from the colonies b. provide cheap tea for the American consumers c. help the British East India Company d. monopolize the American tea business 4.The First Continental Congress was attended by the representatives from all the colonies except __________. a. Delaware b. Pennsylvania c. Massachusetts d. Georgia 5.The first shot of the American War of Independence was fired in _____________. a. Concord b. Lexington c. Philadelphia d. Boston 6.Thomas Paine’s Common Sense urged the American colonists to ___________. a. abolish slavery in the colonies b. continue a shipping trade with England c. win independence through peaceful means d. declare their independence 7.The principal author of the Declaration of Independence was _____________ . a. Benjamin Franklin b. Thomas Jefferson c. George Washington d. John Adams 8.Which victory was considered as the turning point of the War of Independence? a. The victory at Trenton. b. The victory at Boston. c. The victory at Saratoga. d. The victory at Yorktown. II. Fill in the blanks. 1.During the colonial days the English ruling class did every thing they could to _____ the development of the colonial economy. The colonies in North America were supposed to ____________ and not compete with English industry. 2.Within the five years from 1763 to 1767 after the war with ______, the British government adopted several measures to extract more money from colonies. The ________ Act of 1764 and the _______ Act of 1765, for example, laid taxes on certain imports and numerous articles in America to help pay for the costs of British government in the colonies. 3.The Sons of Liberty was formed in ______ to organize the opposition to the ______ Act. They favored to take ________ action to the stamp collectors. 4. The First Continental Congress was held in Philadelphia in _______. The majority of the representatives still favored to take _________ means to settle the quarrel with the British. They agreed to refuse to buy English goods, hoping in this way to force the British government to _____ in to their demands. This united action could be called _________. 5. The Declaration of Independence was signed on July 4, ______. Karl Marx once called it ―______________________________________‖. 6. The American War of Independence lasted ______ years. The fighting was actually ended in _______, but the final treaty between Britain and the United States was signed in Paris in ______. The boundaries of the United States were fixed roughly from the Atlantic Ocean to the ______________ on the west and from the _______________ on the north to Spanish ______ on the south. The direct social change brought about by the American Revolution was the emancipation of ________ who fought against the British. III. Questions for Discussion 1.What were the Royal Order, the Currency Act, the Quartering Act, and the Declaratory Act? 2.What happened on the evening of March 5, 1770? 3. How did the colonies react to the Townshend Act? 4. What were the main contents of the Declaration of Independence? 5. What was the importance of the victory at Saratoga? Chapter V Exercises I.Choose the correct answer. 1.The Confederation created in 1781 was a _____________. a. very loose union of states b. very powerful central government c. very firm league of states d. weak government without the legislative power 2. Who was called the Father of the US Constitution? a. George Washington. b. Benjamin Franklin. c. Alexander Hamilton. d. James Madison. 3.According to the text, the Constitution was framed on the following ideas except that _____________. a. there should be three branches of government: one to make laws, another to execute them, and a third to settle questions of law b. the three branches should be able to check and balance the other c. the national government is a government of the people, and not of states alone d. the new government should impose its authority on the people through states 4. Those who supported the Constitution and preferred a strong national government were called __________________. a. Democrats b. Republicans c. Federalists d. Untifederalists 5.How many states were needed to ratify the Constitution? a. Eight b. Nine c. Eleven d. Thirteen 6.Which is incorrect to comment on the Federalist Papers? a. They support the ratification of the Constitution. b. They defend the principles of the Constitution. c. They help dispel the fears of a national authority. d. They spell out the people’s right. 7.The amendment of the Constitution requires the approval of at least _____ of the states. a. one-third b. two-thirds c. three-fourths d. three-fifths 8. When the Second War of Independence broke out in 1812, the US president was ______________. a. Thomas Jefferson b. James Madison c. John Adams d. James Monroe II. Fill in the blanks. 1. Under the Articles of Confederation the national government consisted of only a ___________; it had no separate __________ and ___________ divisions. The state government was left the exclusive powers to regulate commerce and ______ their citizens. 2. The Constitutional Convention was held in Philadelphia in ______. __________ delegates from all states except ______________ attended the opening session. The president of the convention was ______________________. 3. The Untifederalists _________ the constitution and preferred a more __________ federal system of government. 4.George Washington was elected unanimously as the first US President in ______. The first Vice-President was _____________. The first Secretary of Treasury was ________________, and the first Secretary of State was __________________. 5. The most glorious achievement of Jefferson as President was the _______________, which was about ___________ square miles. The Purchase __________ the area of the then United States. 6. The War of 1812 is also called the ________________________. This war lasted _______ years and ended in another American victory. An important result of the war was the strengthening of national ______ and ___________. And it was after this war that the US was able to make the change of a ___________ economy into a really _____________ national economy. III. Questions for Discussion 1. What is confederation? 2. Compare the powers of the governments under the Articles of Confederastion and under the Constitution. 3. What does the ―check and balance‖ mean? 4. What was the Bill of Rights? 5. What were the chief causes of the War of 1812? Chapter VI Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The Monroe Doctrine had the following features or ideas except ___________________. A. non-colonization B. America for Americans C. non-intervention D. Latin America for Europeans 2. The US continental expansion was almost complete by _____. A. 1840 B. 1845 C. 1846 D. 1848 3. Cotton became the most profitable crop in the South mainly because of the ____________________. A. use of irrigation on plantation B. Whitney’s cotton gin C. slave labour D. improved agricultural techniques 4. In 1854, the Republican Party was founded by some ______. A. slaveholders B. abolitionists C. democrats D. proslavery persons 5. In his inaugural address in 1861, Lincoln showed clearly that he __________________________________. A. would abolish slavery in the South B. would not abolish slavery immediately but to preserve the Union C. would wage a war against slavery D. had no idea to abolish slavery in the South 6. Which of the following statements about the Emancipation Proclamation is not accurate? A. It immediately freed all slaves living in the United States. B. It freed slaves only in the Confederacy. C. It brought many blacks to serve in the Union Army. D. It gave the North a high moral reason for continuing the war. 7. The most important advantage the North had over the South in the civil War was its ______________. A. manpower B. superior military leadership C. European allies D. industrial superiority 8. An advantage the South had over the North was its _______. A. great mineral resources B. great number of railroads C. manpower D. superior military leadership II. Fill in blanks. 1. The essence of the Monroe Doctrine was ―_____________‖, which later became the _________ of the US foreign policy. 2. The US expansion to the west may be treated in three stages: a. _____________________________. b. _____________________________. c. _____________________________. 3. The great majority of dweller in Louisiana Territory were the descendants of the ________ pioneers. They settled mainly in the two cities: ____________ and ____________. 4. Oregon Territory was settled between Britain and the United States in ________. Its boundary on the north was fixed at the ____________ parallel of north latitude. 5. Under Missouri Compromise, Missouri was admitted as a ______ state, but the balance of political power maintained by admission of ________ as a ______ state. In addition, slavery was to be prohibited in the rest of Louisiana Territory north of the line _________ parallel. 6. In 1862, the federal government took two revolutionary measures: (1) ___________________________ and (2) ______________________________. 7. In July 1863 came the turning point of the war at ________. Here the Confederate army under the general _____________ was defeated. The battlefield was made a national ________, where Lincoln gave his famous speech, the ______________, on November 19, 1863. 8. In ______, the Thirteenth Amendment to the US Constitution was adopted, which abolished ________ throughout the United States. III. Questions for Discussion 1. What was the importance of the Monroe Doctrine? 2. What were the basic causes of the Civil War? 3. What was the doctrine of the ―popular sovereignty‖? 4. How do you comment on the American Civil War? Chapter VII Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The first US president who faced impeachment proceedings was ___________. A. James Buchanan B. Andrew Johnson C. Ulysses S. Grant D. Rutherford B. Hays 2. The radical Reconstruction was ended under the President _________. A. Abraham Lincoln B. Andrew Johnson C. Ulysses S. Grant D. Rutherford B. Hays 3. Gold was discovered in California in ________. A. 1845 B. 1847 C. 1849 D. 1850 4. The first transcontinental railroad in the US was completed in _______. A. 1850 B. 1859 C. 1869 D. 1890 5. Telephone was invented in 1876 by ____________. A. Thomas A. Edison B. Alexander G. Bell C. Guglielmo Marconi D. George Westinghouse 6. According tot he text the value of manufactured goods in the US was worth twice as that of her agricultural products by ________. A. 1860 B. 1890 C. 1894 D. 1900 7. The first imperialist was War, the US,Spanish War, broke out in ________. A. 1886 B. 1890 C. 1898 D.1900 8. After the US,Spanish War, the US acquired all the following areas except ________. A. Puerto Rico B. Guam C. the Philippines D. Cuba II. Fill in blanks. 1. The Reconstruction Acts divided all the former __________ states, except __________, into five ________ districts and each was put under the control of a Northern army officer. The officer had the power to keep _______ and to enforce ________ law if necessary. 2. During the Reconstruction period many Northerners moved to the south. Whatever their motives, these Northerners came to be called __________ because they were said to have brought all their __________ to the South in a small, cheap suitcase made out of a carpetlike material. 3. During the Reconstruction the Southern whites who supported the radical reconstruction and joined the _________ Party were called ___________. They were considered ________ by the Southern Democrats. 4. The KKK, founded in Tennessee in 1866, was a secret society for restoring white __________ and driving blacks out of _________. 5. During __________________’s presidency the US got control of ________ Canal. III. Questions for Discussion 1. What is the 10 percent plan? 2. Why was Andrew Johnson impeached by the House? 3. After the Reconstruction, how were the civil rights of the Blacks in the South? 4. Why did the US have a rapid industrial growth after the Civil War? 5. Do you think Chicago is a city with glorious revolutionary tradition? Why? 6. What was the ―Open Door Policy‖? Chapter VIII Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. th1. By the beginning of the 20 century the country that took the first place in economy in Europe was _________. A. Germany B. France C. Britain D. Russia 2. When the First World War began, President Wilson immediately called upon the American people to __________. A. be ready for the war B. observe strict neutrality C. give financial help to the Allies D. end the trade relations with Germany 3. The US joined the First World War in __________. A. 1914 B. 1915 C.1916 D.1918 4. Wilson’s Fourteen Points did not include the point of ______. A. disarmament B. creation of an international organization of nations C. freedom of the seas, in peace and war D. creation of an international peacekeeping force 5. Which statement about the US in 1920s is not true? A. The gross national product rose. B. Only the rich could afford new consumer goods. C. The youth suspected the values of the older generation. D. There was a fast urbanization in the whole country. 6. In responding to the Depression, President Hoover thought that the basic role of the Government was to ____________. A. provide government aid for the poor B. create conditions favorable to the development of private enterprises C. intervene in the affairs of economy D. take the responsibility for the welfare of the people 7. The agricultural Adjustment Act was an attempt to deal with the farmers’ problem of _________. A. soil erosion B. declining labor supply C. inflation D. overproduction 8. Which one is not right to comment on the New Deal? A. It relieved unemployment through a vast scheme of public works. B. It offered relief to farmers through providing money at low rates of interest. C. It brought in old age and unemployment insurance through providing a system of pension. D. It reduced the commodity prices by limiting production and devaluing the dollar. II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The First World War was waged between two groups of imperialist powers: ____________ and ________________. 2. The direct cause that made the US declare war on Germany in _______ was the Germany’s __________ campaign. 3. The major triumph for Wilson at the Paris Peace Conference was the formation of the _________________. 4. The United States didn’t join the League of Nations because the US _______ refused to approve the Treaty of _________. 5. Three major treaties were concluded at the _____________ Conference: (1) the Four-Power Treaty, respecting the ________ in the Pacific; (2) the __________ Treaty, on naval arms __________; (3) the Nine-Power Treaty, guaranteeing the independence and integrity of ______ in appearance, but actually a public international affirmation of the _____________ policy. 6. The ____________ Amendment to the US Constitution was adopted in _____, which granted women the right to _____. 7. The Great Depression started with the sudden collapse of the ___________ in New York in October, ______. This economic distress extended to Europe, Asia, Africa, Australia and South America. III. Questions for discussion 1. What were the major causes of the First World War? 2. Why did the US join the Allies in the war? 3. What were the basic ideas of the New Deal? How do you comment on the New Deal? 4. Do you know something about the ―Lost Generation‖? Explain. Chapter IX Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. Between 1935 and 1939, American foreign policy included all of the following except ____________. A. the prohibition of the sale of arms or equipment to nations at war B. the prohibition of loans to belligerent nations C. cash-and-carry policy D. active intervention to prevent aggression 2. The US formerly entered the Second World War in ______. A. 1937 B. 1939 C. 1940 D.1943 3. Normandy Landing took place on ___________. A. June 6, 1944 B. July 6, 1944 C. April 30, 1945 D. April 12, 1945 4. At which conference did Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin agree to call a conference of all the United Nations in San Francisco in April 1945? A. The Conference in Teheran, on Nov. 28, 1943. B. The Conference in Cario, on Nov. 23, 1943. C. The Conference at Dumbarton Oaks, in the fall of 1944. D. Yalta Conference, in Feb. 1945. 5. The post-World War II program of economic assistance to Western Europe was known as _______________. A. containment policy B. Truman Plan C. Marshall Plan D. Communist prevention 6. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., advocated the philosophy of ___________. A. economic equality B. nonviolence C. military protest D. black power 7. Thousands of American soldiers were sent to Vietnam under the President __________. A. Dwight D. Eisenhower B. John F. Kennedy C. Lyndon B. Johnson D. Richard M. Nixon 8. The formal diplomatic relation at the ambassadorial rank between China and the US was established under the President __________. A. Nixon B. Carter C. Reagan D. Bush II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The cash-and-carry policy allowed US citizens to _____ certain nonprohibited goods to belligerent nations as long as those goods were not transported on __________ ships. 2. ___________ Act enabled any country whose _______ the President considered vital to that of the US to receive _______ and other ________ and supplies by sale, transfer, exchange, or lease. F. D. Roosevelt explained the Act would make the US the ________ of world democracy. 3. Civil rights involve government protection of individuals against ____________ based on their _____, _________, national origin, gender, age, and other factors. Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., a black leader of the civil rights movement, was honored for his effort to fight ___________. In 1964, he won the Nobel Prize for ______. 4. Star Wars program was proposed by President _________ in ______. The program seeks to construct a defensive ―shield‖ against incoming _______ ________. The shield would be made of _______ and electronic _______ that would destroy such missiles launched to attack ___________. 5. In 1990, President ______ ordered Operation Desert Storm to punish ______, more than 200,000 US troops were sent to Saudi Arabia, and the US navy ________ all oil exports from Iraq and all imports except _______. 6. Under Clinton, the US enjoyed an economic growth for nine ____________ years, and didn’t show any sign of stopping when Clinton left the White House in ______. This phenomenon, hardly seen before, has been termed the ―____ ____________‖ by some. The fundamental reason for it is that American economic structure went through essential changes because of the promotion of ________ and ____________ progress. IV. Questions for Discussion 1. How do you understand the Cold War? 2. What was the Truman Doctrine? 3. What were the major aims of the Marshall Plan? 4. What do the civil rights mean to the Americans? 5. How do you comment on the American ―new economy‖? Chapter X I. Choose the correct answer. Exercises 1. The power of the state in the US is actually from _________. A. the central government B. the state constutution C. the US Constitution D. both B and C 2. The supreme law of the United States includes __________. A. the US Constitution B. treaties under the authority of the United States C. laws to ensure the constitutional power being practiced D. all the above three 3. The terms of the senator and representative are ______ and _____ years respectively. A. two … four B. two …three C. two …six D.six …two 4. Which Amendment provided for the direct election of senators? A. The 16th Amendment (1913) thB. The 17 Amendment (1913) thC. The 18 Amendment (1919) thD. The 19 Amendment (1920) 5. Certain presidential appointments must be approved by a majority vote in _________. A. Congress B. the House C. the Supreme Court D. the Senate 6. All revenue or tax bills must be originated in _________. A. the Cabinet B. the House C. the Senate D. the Executive Office 7. Who is second in line in presidential succession? A. The Speaker of the House B. The Vice President C. The president pro tempore D. The leader of the majority party in the Sebate 8. In the House, the power to decide when the full House will hear the bill is vested in ________________. A. the Rules Committee B. the standing committee C. Subcommittee D. the select committee II. Fill in the blanks. 1. Federalism means the division of powers by a __________ between the _________ government and ______ government. It operates only on two levels, the national and the state. Units of government within a state enjoy no ____________ existence. 2. Separation of powers in the United States means not only allocating __________ power to Congress, __________ power to President and ________ power to the Supreme Court, but also giving each branch constitutional and political _____________ and _________________________ that ensure each of the three branches a sufficient role in the ________ of the others. 3. According to the Constitution, members of the House of Representatives must be _____ years old and must have been citizens for ______ years. Senators must be at least _____ and must have been citizens for _______ years. 4. The ________________ is officially the presiding officer and is called the ___________ of the Senate. In fact he seldom appears in the Senate chamber in this role unless it appears that there might be _____ vote in the Senate. In such instances, he casts the _________ vote. To deal with day-to-day business, the Senate chooses the ____________________. 5. A senator who wants to delay action on a bill or kill it altogether may use a tactic called a ____________. It can be cut off only through ________. 6. Lobbying is part of the citizen’s right to _______ government in the US. Now there are thousands of lobbyists in Washington D. C. Their influence in making the US policy is so great that some people call them ―__________________‖ of Congress. III. Questions for discussion 1. How do you understand that the US citizen can strive for the change of a law by legal and peaceful means? 2. What are the specific powers and implied powers of Congress? 3. What are the special powers of the Senate and the House of Representatives? 4. How does a bill become a law in Congress? 5. What is a pocket veto? Chapter XI Exercises 1. Choose the correct answer. 1. Which one in the following limits the President to two successive terms only? thA. The 20 Amendment (1933) B. The 21st Amendment (1933) C. The 22nd Amendment (1951) D. The 23rd Amendment (1961) 2. The American President has all the following powers except _________. A. deploying armed forces B. making treaties C. Declaring war on another country D. granting pardons 3. The president’s major appointments should be approved by ___________. A. Congress B. the House C. the Senate D. the Supreme Court 4. Which is not correct to explain the executive agreement? A. An agreement between the president and another country. B. It has the force of a treaty. C. It requires the approval of Congress. D. It does not require the Senate’s advice and consent. 5. The President’s veto can be overriden by two-thirds votes in _____________. A. the House B. the Senate C. both houses D. the Supreme Court 6. The federal courts that regularly employ grand and petit juries are ____________. A. the Supreme Court B. the courts of appeal C. the district courts D. specialized courts 7. The highest authority of the Supreme Court is _________. A. to review decisions of the courts of appeal B. to review decisions of the federal district courts C. to try the impeachment case D. to interpret the US Constitution 8. The cases involving copyright, trademark, counterfeiting, and bank robbery are usually first tried in _____________. A. the courts of appeal B. the appellate court C. the federal district courts D. the state supreme court Fill in the blanks. 1. By law any ___________ American citizen of and over ______ years of age and of being a resident within the United States for _______ years can run for the President. The duly elected and duly qualified president-elect takes office on the ______ of January following his election. 2. The War Power (1973) requires the President to _______ Congress and withdraw troops after ______ days unless Congress specifically approves the continued __________ of troops. 3. A federal law gave President an item veto in _______, which is an authority to reject specific _______ of a bill without having to veto the ________ bill. 4. The Supreme Court has the power to examine the ______ passed by Congress and policies made by President, and declare them _______________ and thus _________ them. John Marshall, the most famous chief justice (1801-1835) in American history, called this power of interpretation __________________. 5. There are three federal court levels: 1) ______________, 2)__________________, 3) ________________________. All the judges of the federal courts are appointed by __________ with the consent of the _________. The state court system also has a hierarchy of three levels: 1) ________________, 2) ____________________, 3) __________________. The state court judges are usually __________. The term of the county court judges is usually _______ years. And the judges in higher state courts usually serve ______ or _____ years for one term. I. Questions for Discussion 1. How do you understand that the US President holds big influence in law-making? 2. How is the President’ power limited? 3. Why do the criminal cases in a state not come to trial in the superior court? 4. What is the class-action suit? Chapter XII Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The emblem of the Democratic Party is ___________. A. elephant B. donkey C. bear D. bull 2. The first Democratic President was _______________. A. George Washington B. Abraham Lincoln C. Thomas Jefferson D. Andrew Jackson 3. The first Republican President was _______________. A. George Washington B. Abraham Lincoln C. Thomas Jefferson D. Andrew Jackson 4. The only Democratic President who served two separate terms between the end of civil War and 1912 was _________. A. Grover Cleveland B. William McKinley C. Theodore Roosevelt D. Woodrow Wilson 5. The presidential candidate of the major party is nominated ______________. A. at the state convention B. at the national convention C. by the leaders from state party organizations D. by the party’s national committee 6. In the presidential election year the American voters vote on the ____________ in November. A. Tues. after the 1stst Mon. B. 1 Tues. ndstC. Tues. After the 2 Mon. D. Mon. after the 1 Tues. 7. The number of the presidential electors in each state is equal to the number of _____________. A. its senators B. its representatives C. its senators and Representatives D. its counties 8. The American President is actually elected by _________. A. the House B. the Senate C. presidential electors D. American citizens II. Fill in the blanks. 1. Two factions emerged during the ratification of the US Constitution. One group was called __________ led by Alexander Hamilton. They favored _________ development, a _________ national government, and a loose interpretation of the Constitution. Another group led by _______________ was called Democratic-Republicans. They called for a society based on small farms, a relatively ______ central government, and a ______ interpretation of the Constitution. The roots of today’s Republican Party lie in the __________, while the Democrats can trace their beginnings back to __________________. 2. In general, Democrats traditionally have supported workers and ___________, while the Republicans are known for their support of ___________ and ____________ positions on social issues. 3. Before 1971 the only state that gave 18-year-olds the right to vote was _________; all other states set the age at _________. In 1971 the _______ Amendment to the Constitution lowered the voting age to __________. 4. The voting percentage now is very ______ in the United States. In general _______ people with more _________ and high ________ tend to vote, while the youth, especially aged ____ to _____, has the lowest voting percentage in the United States. 5. The candidate with the most votes in a state wins all of that state’s ________ votes. This is known as the ―____________‖ principle. The candidate who wins the ________ of the 538 Electoral College votes will be the US President in the next four years. III. Questions for Discussion 1. How did the two major parties come into being? 2. What images do the two major parties hold about each other? 3. How is the conduct of elections regulated in the US? 4. What is the party platform? 5. How is the President elected if no candidates receives a majority of the electoral votes? Chapter XIII Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. Who is chiefly responsible for education in the US? A. The federal government. B. The state government. C. The county government. D. The local government. 2. In the US school system, there are twelve levels called _____. A. classes B. divisions C. grades D. degrees 3. The elementary and secondary education in the US lasts ___________. A. 8 years B. 10 years C. 12 years D.13 years 4. The average teacher salary in private secondary schools is ____________ that in public schools. A. higher than B. lower than C. almost same as D. half of 5. A great majority of doctor-level universities in the US are ______________. A. private B. supported by religious groups C. public D. supported by private funds 6. After completing four-year study in a college, the student usually can earn ____________. A. a university degree B. a graduate degree C. a bachelor’s degree D. a master’s degree 7. In order to remain in college the student must maintain at least a ______ average. A. B B. C C. D D. F 8. In 1994-95, the average cost for tuition and fees in a private college was _____________. A. $804 B. $3,617 C. $2,686 D. $11,709 II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The federal government can give financial help but not ______ in education. Each state has an educational administration, and the state authorities lay down general _________ concerning the organization of schools and such matters as the ages of ___________ education. Schools are managed by local _____________________ of education, whose members are elected. Most schools are run on _____ levied by local districts and states. 2. Private schools in the US were divided into two categories: parochial and nondenominational. Parochial schools are supported by various __________ groups. Thirty-five percent of them are affiliated with the ________ Church, and the left affiliated with other religious groups. The nondenominational schools are not ___________ with a religious group. They are fewer than _________ schools. 3. The total number of the institutions of higher education is about ________. This figure represents one institution for every _________ Americans. Slightly more than half of all institutions of higher education are _________ supported, many of them by _____________ groups. 4. American universities offer three main categories of graduate degrees: 1) ____________________, 2) __________________, 3) _____________________. In most fields of specialization, a _____________ degree can be earned by one or two academic years of study beyond the bachelor’s degree. A Ph. D. degree usually takes at least _______ years beyond the ________ degree. III. Questions for Discussion 1. At elementary stage what do the teachers usually emphasize? 2. What are the five categories of institutions of higher education in the United States? 3. What are the two requirements for gaining a Ph. D. degree? 4. What are the responsibilities of the faculty members in colleges and universities? 5. Discuss the importance of receiving higher education in your life. Chapter XIV Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The first daily newspaper in America was published in _________. A. 1690 B. 1775 C. 1783 D. 1800 2. Which newspaper first uncovered the Watergate scandal in 1972? A. New York Times. B. Washington Post. C. New York Daily News. D. Los Angeles Times. 3. The top one ranked by advertising revenues in 1994 was _____________. A. People Weekly B. TV Guide C. Time D. Newsweek 4. The world most-read magazine is ________. A. TV Guide B. Time C. Reader’s Digest D. People Weekly 5. According to the text, VOA radio station broadcasts day and night in ____ languages. A. 16 B. 20 C. 41 D. 45 6. The TV networks in the US are owned ________. A. by the federal government B. by private companies C. by state governments D. by local governments 7. According to the text, what television does best is to provide _____________. A. live coverage of contemporary events B. commercial news C. sports news D. education programs 8. Democratic and Republican National Conventions were televised for the first time in ________. A. 1945 B. 1950 C. 1952 D. 1960 II. Fill in the blanks. 1. There were traditionally two types of mass media: the print media of ____________ and __________ and the broadcast media of _______ and _____. Now advances in technology are blurring the distinction between the print and broadcast media. The __________ makes information available that is also published in newspapers and magazines or presented over the radio and TV. 2. Weekly and monthly magazines published _______ articles on national issues and gained a large middle class audience by the late ______ century. They later became an outlet for the ___________, a group of writers between 1902 and 1911 who attacked social evils. 3. Cable television was originally designed as a means of improving TV ________ in some rural areas. But it has become very common in the country since _____, when RCA (Radio Corporation of America) put its first communications ________ in operation. 4. The Internet can be loosely defined as a network of computers linked by _______ lines. With the appropriate modems and _______, the Internet allows people to ___________ with each other directly from their ______. The most popular use of this high-speed information link is _______, which allows users to type letters and send them directly to each other’s computers. III. Questions for Discussion 1. Discuss the functions of mass media. How do you understand the information superhighway? Chapter XV Exercises I. Choose the correct questions. 1. Which one in the following is not proper to describe the American family values? A. Individual freedom. B. Belief in equality. C. Personal independence. D. Formal and strict relations between parents and children. 2. The divorce rate in 1994 in the US was ____ per 1,000 of population. A. 4.6 B. 4.7 C. 4.8 D. 5.0 3. According to the text, we know the Westerner is _______. A. gracious B. self-reliant C. casual D. leisurely 4. If a junior staff member challenges and argues points with an older executive, the junior is considered being _______. A. impolite B. rude C. immoral D. harmless 5. To make distinctions between persons, Americana s may use _____________. A. the family title B. the occupational title C. Mr. or Ms. D. Sir or Ma’am 6. To Americans, if weaknesses were pointed out by others, it would be _____________. A. disgraceful B. all right C. resentful D. indifferent 7. By American standards, which one in the following is not a taboo? A. Financial affairs. B. Person’s age. C. Religion. D. Person’s work. 8. According to the text, which word in the following is not proper to describe American? A. Optimistic. B. Acquisitive. C. Formal. D. Frank. II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The American family is usually a ________ family, consisting of parents and their children under ____. Middle-aged and elderly people generally do not live with their ________ children. The married adults usually consider their father and mother, sister, or brother as ___________ household units. Aunts, uncles, cousins, and grandparents are defined as ―_________ family‖. 2. Over the years the _______ placed on marriage itself is determined largely by how ______ the husband and wife make each other. Happiness is based primarily on _____________. Other values, such as having economic support and the opportunity to have children, are seen as _______ important. 3. Americans are a highly _________ people. When an American’s income rises, he will usually ____________ a better house in a better district. Today’s _____, today’s _______, today’s _______, today’s ______ and neighborhood, all these are part of an American’s identity. 4. Americans are acquisitive and prepared to take the ______, even when there is a ______ in doing so. Americans like to believe that a difficult problem can be solved ___________ and impossible one may take a little longer. They take pride in meeting _________ and overcoming difficult obstacles. This can-do spirit has traditionally given Americans a sense of ________ about themselves and their country. III. Questions for Discussion 1. Compare the American families with the Chinese ones, and find out the chief differences between them. 2. How do you comment on the American values of marriage? 3. How do you think if a junior challenges and argues points with you? 4. How do the Americans deal with the relations between truth and politeness? 5. How do the Americans consider the social rank? 6. When an American is talking about his weak points, what do you say in such circumstances? Chapter I Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The largest section of Great Britain is _______________. a. Scotland b. Wales c. England d. Northern Ireland 2. The Lake District is well known for _______________. a. its wild and beautiful scenery b. its varied lakes c. the Lake Poets d. all above 3. The highest peak in Great Britain is _____________. a. Ben Nevis b. Cross Fell c. Snowdon d. Cheviot Hill 4. The capital city of Wales is _____________. a. Edinburgh b. Belfast c. Cardiff d. Londonderry 5. The part that receives the largest of annual rainfall is _________. a. the east lowlands b. the northern part of England c. the northwestern part of Scotland d. Wales 6. The longest river in Britain is the _____________. a. Thames River b. Severn River c. Clyde River d. Tyne River 7. The largest lake if the United Kingdom is in ______________. a. England b. Wales c. Scotland d. Northern Ireland 8. Meadows and pastures take up _________ of the total area in the United Kingdom. a. 48% b. 14% c. 29% d. 9% II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The British Isles are situated in the ______________ of Europe. They are cut off from the continent by the _______________. On the north and the east the Isles face the __________ and on the west they face the ______________. The full title of the United Kingdom is ___________________________________________. 2. The Pennines, the so-called _________________, are in the north of _________. The highest point of the Pennines is __________, which is 893 meters high. The mountain takes on a general dip towards the ______ and fades into the low ground bordering the ________. The bulk of the Pennines is ___________. th century, Northern Ireland was part of _______ as a whole. In ______, 3. Before the early 20it became part of the United Kingdom, with a separated ________ and self-government. There were originally six _______ in Northern Ireland. But since 1973 it has a single-tier system of _____ administrative districts. 4. The climate in Britain is moderated by the _________________ and is much _______ than that of many places in the same latitude. The climate is generally equable, but the day-to-day conditions are _________________. 5. The coals in Britain are mainly ___________ types, and some are very suitable for _____. Coal reserves are estimated being enough to supple the nation’s anticipated needs for ____ years. Most of Britain’s important collieries are situated in _______ Scotland, ______ England, and ______ Wales. III. Questions for Discussion 1. How do you describe the land features of Great Britain? 2. How do the Welsh and Scots feel when you address them the English? 3. Do you think Britain has a changeable weather ? Why? 4. Do you think the oil and gas reserves in the North Sea play a important role in British economy? Explain. Chapter II Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The vast majority of the people of the UK are ___________. a. Roman Catholics b. Presbyterians c. Anglicans d. Methodists 2. The English are mainly descendants of _____________. a. Celts b. Anglo-Saxons c. Vikings d. Norman Conquerors 3. A cockney is a _____________. a. typical Englishman b. typical Londoner c. typical Briton d. native London dialect speaker 4. The Welsh came to Britain ____________. th century a. earlier than the English b. later than the English 5. Which word is not exact to describe the Welsh? c. together with the English d. in the 13a. Musical b. Emotional c. Cheerful d. Suspicious 6. Most of the Scotsmen now speak __________. a. English b. Celtic c. Gaelic d. both English and Gaelic 7. A typical Scotsman is usually depicted in the following word except ________. a. brave b. hard-working c. economical d. extravagant 8. Most people in Northern Ireland are ____________. a. Catholics b. Protestants c. Presbyterians d. Nonconformists II. Fill in the Blanks. 1. The Welsh, the Scots and the Irish are the descendants of _______ who came from Europe to the British Isles centuries before the ________ invasion. It was these people whom the Germanic _______ and _______ conquered in the ____ and ____ centuries A.D. These Germanic conquerors were conquered in turn by the ____________, when William of Normandy landed near Hastings in _______. It was from the union of _________ conquerors and the _______________ that the English people and the English language were born. 2. Cockney English is very rich in slang, especially rhyming slang. The _______ part of the rhyming slang is often ___________. 3. Wales was conquered by the English in the _____ century. 4. Welsh is an ancient ________ language. In ______ Welsh was forbidden as an official language, but in ____ it was given equality with English for all official use in Wales. Welsh literature dates back to the ______ century A.D. Much early Welsh poetry is ______ or elegiac, and concerns ___________ heroes and their exploits. Welsh literature had a profound influence in medieval Europe, as it is the source both of Arthurian _______ and that of the Holy Grail. From ______ century onward classical Welsh literature declined. 5. Ireland was the first _______ of British Empire. In ______, the parliaments of Great Britain and Ireland were formally united by the Act of Union. The Irish are mainly ______ in origin. And most of them are Roman Catholic. When the Reformation began in the _____ century in England and Scotland, the Irish refused to accept the ________. During the reign of __________, however, many English and Scottish Protestants began to move to Ireland and became the most powerful elements in the country. Northern Ireland became mainly ___________, while the rest of Ireland remained chiefly _______________. III. Questions for Discussion 1. How do the Welsh and the Scots differ from the English in character? 2. What is ―eisteddfod‖? 3. Why are the Highlanders called ―ladies from hell‖? 4. Where were the immigrants of Britain from before and after the Second World War? 5. What is ―brain drain‖? Chapter III Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The earliest known settlers on the British Isles were ____________. a. Celts b. Iberians c. Gaels d. Anglo-Saxons 2. The real Roman conquest of Britain began in __________. a. 55BC b. 54BC c. AD43 d. AD96 3. Which part of Britain was radically transformed by the Romans? a. Scotland. b. Wales c. England. d. London 4. Christianity was first brought to England by ____________. a. Romans b. Anglo-Saxons c.Celts d. Danes 5. Which of the following tribes first came to Britain? a. Anglos. b. Saxons . c. Jutes. d. Teutons. 6. King Ethelred was called Ethelred the Unready because ___________. a. he was always unready for fighting b. he lacked military preparedness c. he failed to make preparedness d. he failed to follow good advice 7. The greatest achievement of William the Conqueror was _________. a. the establishment of the legal system b. the introduction of feudalism c. the spreading of Norman-French d. the compiling of the Domesday Book 8. The Domesday Book included all the following points except ___________. a. all land and property of then England b. the rights of landowners c. the duty of every court d. the power of the king II. Fill in the blanks. 1. Soon after 700 BC the Celts from _________ of northwest Europe came to settle on the British Isles. The first wave of Celtic invaders was the _______, whose language is still spoken in Scotland. from about 500 BC another group of the Celts called _______ came and drove the Gaels to the ______ and west. From the ________ came the English name for Britain. A third wave, Belgae from _________, arrived about 100 BC and occupied the greatest part of what are now known as the ________________. 2. The Roman occupation of Britain lasted nearly ______ years, and it was the Romans who brought _____________ to England. 3. Around the turn of the _____ century the ____________ invaded England. when the Danes were threatening to take possession of all England, King Alfred began to fight against them. He built boats, thus earning the name of ―___________________‖. Later Alfred made a treaty with the ______, allowing them to control the ______ and _______ parts of England which later became known as the ____________. 4. Edward the Confessor was the ______ but one of the _______ kings. He died in _____. In the same year Duke William invaded England. and on _________ Day of _______, Duke William was crowned in the recently built ___________________. A new line of _______ kings began to rule England and William became __________________. 5. The Norman Conquest was in effect a French conquest and the imposition upon England of a ruling French aristocracy. In consequence, ___________ of the conquerors replaced English as an authoritative language in England. English became a ___________ language. It was not until _____ century that English again became the language of the richer and cultural class. So ______ English (1150—1450) was strongly modified by an extensive infusion of _______ vocabulary. III. Questions for Discussion 1. What was the Roman influence over Britain? 2. What was the effect of the Christianity on the early Anglo-Saxons? 3. Why do we say King Alfred was even greater in peace than he was in war? 4. What were the consequences of the Norman Conquest? Chapter IV Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The last of the true Norman Kings was ____________. a. William Rufus b. Henry I c. Henry II d. Robert 2. The founder of the English legal system and the Common Law was _________. a. Henry I b. Henry II c. Stephen d. Matilda 3. The Great Charter includes all the following points except that _________. a. no tax should be made without the approval of the council b. no freemen should be arrested except by the law of the land c. if the king attempted to free himself from law the vassals had the right to force the king to obey d. the vassals had the sole power to levy a tax on people 4. The first ―Prince of Wales‖ in English history was ___________. a. Henry III b. Edward I c. Edward II d. Edward III 5. The Parliament became a regular agency of the government under ________. a. Henry III b. Simon de Montfort c. Edward I d. Edward II 6. Wales was conquered by ____________. a. Edward I b. Edward II c. Henry III d. Richard I 7. The chief demand of the peasants during Tyler’s Rising of 1381 was _________. a. to punish the lawyers b. to raise wages c. to free villains d. to reform the church 8. The Wars of the Roses ended in 1485 with the accession of ________, the first king of the House of Tudor. a. Henry VII b. Henry VIII c. John of Gaunt d. Edward IV II. Fill in the blanks. 1. Henry I became king of England in _____. During his reign, he introduced several _________ and _______ reforms. He was well liked by his people because he kept ______ in the country, but he must bear part of the _______ for the terrible years followed his death. 2. Henry II was the first king of the House of _______. He was a very powerful ruler in Europe, he received all __________ France from his father and all _________ France from his wife. He ruled, in fact, all land between _________ and ______. Henry II is best remembered for his reform of the _____ and their ______. 3. In his Canterbury Tales, the poet Chaucer described a group of people who made pilgrimages to ____________’s grave. 4. The Great Charter was signed by King _____ in _______. This feudal contract _________ the barons’ traditional feudal rights. It was chiefly important as an expressing of the principle of ________ government; it forwarded the idea that the king was bound by the _____ of the land. The right of revolt against ________ government was spelled out in the document. This was to be a factor in the __________ Revolution. The Great Charter is traditionally regarded as the basis of English __________. 5. The Hundred Years’ War lasted intermittently from 1337 to ______. During the war England underwent important ________, __________ and social changes. 6. The Black Death struck Europe in the middle of the _____ century and reached England in the summer of ______. The sudden and violent effect in England was the fall in the population, and consequently in the ___________. The government tried to check this by the Statute of Labourers of 1351, which made it a _______ offence for labourers to demand, or for employers to pay, more than the maximum wages fixed by the _______ in the district. 7. The Wars of the Roses lasted ____ years. Supporting the Lancastrians were the wild ______ of the Scottish and Welsh borders, the most _________ and ______ elements surviving in the country. The Yorkists drew most of their support from the progressive ______, from East Anglia and from _______, even if this support was not usually very active. So in nature the war was a struggle between the __________ gentry in the South and the backward ________ landowners in the North and West. III. Questions for Discussion 1. How did King Henry II reform the courts and law in England? 2. Why was King John nicknamed ―King of Lackland‖? 3. What’s the significance of the Great Charter? 4. How did the English Parliament come into being? 5. What do you know about the nature and consequences of the Wars of the Roses? Chapter V Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. Under Henry VII, the Justices of the Peace had all the following powers except _____. a. trying cases b. the care of roads and bridges c. training lawyers d. the control of guilds 2. John Cabot was sent to discover new way to the East by _________. a. the Pope b. the King of Spain c. Henry VII d. Henry VIII 3. Which is not proper to describe the Church of Middle Ages? a. It was a religious body that had a political power. b. It was a body that had a legal power. c. It was a branch of national government controlled by king. d. It was like an upper-state organization that was very powerful. 4. The external pretext for the Reformation in England was _________’s divorce case. a. Henry VII b. Henry VIII c. Clement II d. Charles V 5. Elizabeth I was excommunicated by the Pope in ________. a. 1558 b. 1571 c. 1586 d. 1603 6. Who was a Catholic among the following kings and queens? a. Henry VIII b. Edward VI c. ―Bloody Mary‖ d. Elizabeth I 7. Spanish Armada was defeated in _________. a. 1558 b. 1588 c. 1600 d. 1603 8. In drama the most shining representative of the Elizabethan Age were the following ones except ____________. a. Christopher Maelowe b. Edmund Spenser c. William Shakespeare d. Ben Johson II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The Tudor Monarchy, being in the transitional stage from _________ to _______, witnessed many important political, economic and social changes. It reformed ______ in England and tolerated _________. It was during the Tudor Monarchy that _______ was discovered and the __________ spread into England. 2. Under Henry VII, the Privy Council consisted of only king’s _______. It advised the king on the important decisions of internal and _______ policy. It also exercised _________ and __________ powers. 3. Elizabeth I came to the throne in _____. In spite of her __________ background, she tried to settle the religious problem by following a _______ course that satisfied all reasonable men. The intention was to be inclusive: Catholics were not to be driven out of the ____________ if she could help it, and she wanted to keep as ________ of her protestant subjects within it as possible. 4. There are now two groups in the Church of England: the _______ Church that attaches much importance to the authority of the _________, the spiritual power of the _______, and the observance of __________; the ______ Church that attaches greater importance to the __________ interpretation of the Bible and to evangelism generally than to _______ or the value of the sacraments. 5. Renaissance means ________. The word was first used by _______ scholars in ththe mid-16 century to express the _________ of ancient Roman and _____ culture. But modern scholars are more inclined to use the term to express the great variety of changes that _______ underwent politically, economically and culturally between 1450 and ______________. 6. Most of the writers in the era of the Renaissance were sometimes called ______. In their literary works they voiced the human aspirations for _______ and ________ and against the ______ of feudal rule and ecclesiastical domination. They sang the praises of _____ and social progress but attacked social _____ and vice. The greatest of the English humanists of this time was _________, who was the author of the book ―__________‖. III. Questions for Discussion 1. How did Henry VII encourage the development of trade? 2. How and why did the Reformation take place in England? 3. How did Elizabeth I deal with her enemy when she became Queen of England? 4. What were the distinctive features of the English Renaissance? Chapter VI Exercises 1. Choose the correct answer. 1. Guy Fawkes was ______________. A. a Protestant B. a Presbyterian C. an Anglican D. a Catholic 2. Which is incorrect to describe King James I? A. He believed that kings were responsible to parliament. B. He believed that king derived his authority from God. C. He tried to make the Church of England subservient to his will. D. He was quite learned and was remembered by the English for the compiling of the Authorized Version of the Bible. 3. The trouble of Charles I, which led to the Civil War, came at first when he _______________. A. dissolved Parliament B. persecuted Protestants C. asked people for ―loans‖ D. wanted to reform the Presbyterian Church in Scotland 4. Which group in the following were inclined to support the King during the Civil War? A. Merchants. B.Yeomen and artisans. C. Catholics. D. Extreme Protestants. 5. Charles I was tried by the High Court mainly because _____. A. he was an absolute king B. he wanted to reform the Church of Scotland C. he started the Second Civil War D. he wanted to establish Presbyterianism in England 6. The Rump Parliament was dispersed by Cromwell in _____. A. 1649 B. 1651 C. 1653 D. 1658 7. The Great Fire of London broke out in _______. A. 1660 B. 1665 C. 1666 D. 1667 8. The Glorious Revolution marked the ____________. A. beginning of the crown supremacy over parliament B. end of the Civil War C. failure of the Parliament D. beginning of the constitutional monarchy IV. Fill in the blanks. 1. When Elizabeth I died in _______, the son of Mary Stuart became king of both countries as ________ of Scotland and ________ of England. He thought Calvinism and Presbyterianism were a ________ to the royal authority, and was determined not to allow the Church of England to become _______________ like the Church of Scotland. 2. To raise _______ for the sudden war with Scots, Charles I summoned a parliament in April ______. This parliament made use of money problem to start a fierce ________ of the king’s policy. Charles, full of anger, dissolved the parliament that had been in existence for only ______ weeks. This Parliament has thus become known in English history as the _______________________. 3. The Long Parliament lasted for ______ years. During the Civil War, the supporters of Parliament were called ____________, while the supporters of the King were called ____________. 4. In Dec. 1648, the ______________ were expelled from the House of __________ by Colonel Pride, and the remainder continued to sit under the nickname of ―__________‖. On Jan. 30, 1649, ___________ was beheaded on the balcony of his palace at Whitehall, London. 5. The _______________ Act has been called one of the four pillars of the British Constitution. The other three include _________________, the Petition of Right of _________, and the _______________ of 1689. 6. In June 1688, both Whigs and ______ invited _________ and _______ to become the joint rulers of England. This is the famous bloodless or so-called __________ Revolution of 1688. Since then every English monarch rules the country by _____________ of Parliament. V. Questions for Discussion 1. What was the absolutist rule of James I? 2. How did the first Civil War break out? 3. What was the Commonwealth under Cromwell? 4. Why was Cromwell’s name hated in Ireland for many years? 5. Why did the Restoration take place? 6. What do you know about the Glorious Revolution? Chapter VII Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. England and Scotland were constitutionally united in ______. A. 1603 B. 1688 C. 1702 D. 1707 2. After the French and Indian War, Britain got control of _____. A. Canada B. India C. the Ohio Valley D. all above 3. When American colonies were fighting for independence, the King of Great Britain was __________. A. George I B. George II C. George III D. George IV 4. Britain completed her railway system by ________. A. 1800 B. 1820 C. 1850 D. 1870 5. According to the Reform Bill of 1832, who got the right to vote? A. The male workers in cities. B. The middle class. C. The women. D. The farmhands. 6. The People’s Charter includes all the following points except ___________. A. the universal manhood suffrage B. the abolition of property qualification for MPs C. the abolition of payment of MPs D. voting by secret ballot 7. The 19th century economic thinking stems chiefly from ___________. A. Thomas Malthus B. David Ricardo C. Robert Owen A. Adam Smith 8. The ―principle of population‖ was formulated by ________. A. Thomas Malthus B. David Ricardo C. Robert Owen A. Adam Smith II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The first Prime Minister in English history was ___________. 2. The Seven Years’ War in North America was known as the _________________ War. The importance of the war for Britain was that it left Britain predominant in ____________ and in ________, and thereafter Britain became the world’s leading _________ power. 3. The Industrial Revolution in Britain started in the second half of the _____ century, and first began in the _______ industry. 4. On his novels, Charles Dickens gave a vivid picture of the _______________ class of England. Literarily, the period was known as ________________ because the literature of the time was mainly characterized by the __________ and __________ of the society. 5. The Industrial Revolution gave birth to a new social-economic class, the ______________. 6. Laissez faire doctrine means that the government should not ___________ in economic affaires of ________ enterprise, and that government should be merely an omnipresent __________ protecting property and compelling the performance of ____________. It soon came to include such ideas as the ________ of private property and rights of freedom of contract and _________ competition; thus, it became the opposite of _________________. III. Questions for Discussion 1. How did the Prime Minister in Britain come into being? 2. Why was Britain the first country to start the Industrial Revolution? 3. What were the causes for the failure of the Chartist Movement? 4. How do you comment on the ―principle of population‖ by Malthus? Chapter VIII Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. Who was probably reluctant to abolish the corn laws? A. The Tories. B. The Whigs. C. The workers. D. The urban middle class. 2. The incorrect comment on Gladstone is _____________. A. He stood for laissez faire in economics. B. He favored economy in public expenditure. C. He adopted an aggressive foreign policy. D. He adopted gradual parliamentary reform. 3. The incorrect comment on Disraeli is ______________. A. He was the founder of the Liberal Party. B. His policy was to expand the British Empire. C. He made Queen Victoria Empress of India. D. Under him the second Reform Bill was passed. 4. Which reform bill granted women suffrage? A. The Reform Bill of 1832. B. The Reform Bill of 1867. C. The Reform Bill of 1884. D. None above. 5. The Labour Party was founded in __________. A. 1893 B. 1899 C. 1900 D. 1906 6. Queen Victoria was proclaimed Empress of India in _______. A. 1837 B. 1876 C. 1898 D. 1901 7. The first dominion of Great Britain was __________. A. Canada B. New Zealand C. Australia D. the Union of South Africa 8. The Boers in South Africa were from _____________. A. the Orange Free State B. Transvaal C. Germany D. Netherlands II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The Corn Laws were originally planned to ________ English home-grown corn from competition from ________ foreign corn, their existence made for ________ food prices, and assumed the superior importance of _____________ interests over urban _____________ interests. 2. Under the Prime Minister _________, the second Reform Bill was passed in ________. It actually granted nearly universal ___________ suffrage in cities. But millions of ________ workers still remained voteless. 3. The former name of the Labour Party was the ___________________ Committee, which was founded in _______. In _______ the Labour Party became strong enough to control a __________ in the House of Commons and thus formed the first Labour government under the Prime Minister ________________. 4. The British East Indian Company was formed in _______. It ruled India for more than _____ hundreds of years. In 1857 a mutiny of _______ soldiers broke out, but it was put down in ________. Then India became a Crown ___________. 5. The Boer War broke out in ________. The eventual British victory led to the formation of the _______ of South Africa in _________. th6. By the end of the 19 century, the British Empire occupied about _____ million sq km, taking up _______ of the world’s total dry land. This area was about _______ times as large as Great Britain. It ruled over a population of _____ million, which was more than ____ times as large as that in Britain. No wonder the British bourgeoisie boasted that their empire was a __________________ empire. III. Questions for Discussion 1. Why was the abolition of the Corn Laws in 1846 of historic importance? 2. How did the three reform bills enlarge the suffrage? 3. Why did working men want to form trade unions? What do you think the unions have achieved? 4. Why was there a new interest in exploration and colonization in the 19th century? How did the new imperialism differ from the old colonialism? Chapter IX Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The causes for Britain to join the ―Triple Entente‖ in 1907 were the following ones except ______________. A. the failure of the British rapprochement with Germany B. the skillful diplomacy of the French ambassador to Britain C. the German policy to build a large navy D. the British splendid isolation policy 2. Britain declared war on Germany in Aug. 1914 when Germany invaded _____________. A. France B. Poland C. Belgium D. Serbia 3. According to the Treaty of Versailles of 1919, Britain got ____________. A. most of the Germany’s remaining merchant ships B. Palestine and Mesopotamia from Turkey C. German colonies in Africa and in the Pacific Ocean as mandates of the League of Nations D. all above 4. The British Communist Party was founded in __________. A. 1918 B. 1919 C. 1920 D. 1921 5. The War of Malvinas Islands broke out in _______. A. 1979 B. 1981 C. 1982 D. 1983 6. Mrs. Margaret Thatcher agreed in _______ to return Hong Kong to Chinese sovereignty in 1997. A. 1983 B. 1985 C. 1988 D. 1990 7. The chief cause that led to Mrs. Thatcher’s resignation in 1990 was the ___________________. A. imposition of property taxes B. imposition of a per-capita tax C. cutting public expenditure D. denationalization of private enterprise 8. Anthony Blair became Prime Minister in _______. A. 1994 B. 1996 C. 1997 D. 1998 II. Fill in the blanks. 1. In World War I, the British navy played a very important role for the victory of the Allies. It was the ____________ of the British navy that drove Germany to the desperate ________ campaign that finally brought the ___________ into the war. 2. After the First World War, Mahatma Gandhi launched a civil _____________ campaign in India in 1919. In 1920 the British Parliament passed the ____________ of India Act, which transferred some political power to _______ provincial officials but left the appointed British __________ firmly in control. 3. Between the two world wars, Britain’s navy and air force were the ________ in the world, its army the ______ largest. Yet its industry was _________, the Great Depression hit especially hard in the British Isles, strikes and labour unrest occurred frequently, and colonial ties became further ___________ in the 1930s. 4. In Aug. _______, the German Air Force began an intensive attack on the airfields in ____________ England. This battle is usually called the ____________________. 5. In 1946 Britain attached herself permanently to the ________ Alliance. In ______ Harold Macmillan became Prime Minister. He continued the policy to maintain close relation with the ______. Most important, he presided over the transformation of the British ______ to the British ______________________. III. Questions for Discussion 1. Why did the great war leader, Winston Churchill, fail to win the general election of 1945? 2. Through what means did the Labour and Conservative governments increase the standard of living of the British people after the Second World War? 3. What are the main contents of Thatcherism? 4. Why was the Conservative Party defeated by the Labour Party in the general election of 1996? Chapter X Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. Which document, for the first time in English history, forced King to take the advice of nobles? A. The Petition of Right of 1628. B. Habeas Corpus Act. C. Magna Carta. D. The Bill of Rights of 1689. 2. Elizabeth II succeeded to the throne in __________. A. 1951 B. 1952 C. 1953 D. 1954 3. Among the following members the first one to succeed to the throne is _____________. A. the King’s brother B. the Catholic son C. the Protestant daughter D. the Protestant son 4. The Monarch’s eldest daughter is usually called ________. A. Princess of Wales B. princess royal C. Princess daughter D. female Prince of Wales 5. Which is not right to describe the Prime Minister? A. The head of Cabinet. B. The head of civil service. C. The leader of the Party in power. D. The head of the country. 6. Most of the practical work of the government is done by ____. A. the Prime Minister B. the Cabinet ministers C. the heads of departments D. the civil servants 7. A civil servant must be _________________. A. a member of the Party in power B. an MP C. active in politics D. politically neutral 8. The smallest governmental unit in England is ______. A. county B. district C. parish D. community II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The Bill of Rights, passed by parliament in ______, was the first legal step towards _______________ monarchy. 2. The full title of the present Queen Elizabeth II is _________________________________________________. 3. Theoretically, the Queen is the official _____ of state, the head of the ________ system of Britain, the ______________ of all armed forces and the head of the _______ of England. 4. According to the Act of Settlement (1701), there is little chance for a ________ to become king or queen. Only the ______________ descendants are eligible. The monarch’s consort is usually chosen from a _______ family with the consent of _______________. 5. The annual allowance approved by Parliament for the maintenance of the royal household and family is called _____________. 6. The cabinet of the British government was not established by ______, but by constitutional _____________. It was headed by ________________ who is another creation not of _____. 7. The most important committee of the Privy Council is the _________ Committee, which hears _________ from the highest courts of _______ and other dependent territories, and of few independent countries of the ______________. 8. In England, county and district councils are run by _______ ________ councillors, who are elected every ______ years in almost the same way as MPs. The head of each county or district council is called __________, who is appointed ____________ by his councillors. III. Questions for Discussion 1. What is the constitutional monarchy? When did it begin in Britain? 2. Since the British monarch has no real power, why do the English want to remain it? 3. What does the collective responsibility of the Cabinet mean? 4. Who are the members of the Privy Council? 5. What are the responsibilities of the county and district councils in England? Chapter XI Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The English Parliament was formally divided into two Houses in _________________. ththA. the 13 century B. the 14 century thC. the 17 century D. 1688 2. The House of Commons has become more important than the House of Lords since _________. A. 1642 B. 1660 C. 1688 D. 1832 3. Now the House of Lords can prevent a bill from passing into law for ________. A. three months B. six months C. one year D. two years 4. Among the following ones who can not vote in parliamentary election? A. Girls of 18 years old. B. Civil servants. C. The judges. D. The hereditary peers. 5. The general election normally takes place every ____ years. A. three B. four C. five D. six 6. The High Court of Justice includes the following divisions except the ___________________. A. Queen’s Bench Division B. Criminal Division C. Chancery Division D. Family Division 7. Which one in the following is usually dealt with by the Chancery Division? A. The case of murder. B. The case concerning mortgages. C. The case of tort. D. The case concerning divorce. 8. Most of the civil cases are actually tried by ____________. A. Magistrates’ Courts B. County Courts C. High Court of Justice D. Crown Court II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The British Parliament is the supreme __________ of the country. It consists of three elements: the __________, the House of Lords and the House of _________. The official head of the Parliament is the ________. 2. The Lords Temporal include __________ peers and ______ peers. The title of hereditary peers are five ranks. They are, in order of rank, Duke, _________, Earl, _______, and Baron. 3. Since ______ a hereditary peer can give up his noble title during his lifetime. But this does not prevent the peer’s ____ from __________ the title. 4. The House of _______ is the highest court in Britain hearing civil and criminal ________ from the lower courts. 5. If the government is defeated in the House of __________ on an issue, the Prime Minister either _______ or asks the monarch to ____________ the parliament. 6. The presiding officer of the Lower House is called ________, while the equivalent of the Upper House is the ___________. 7. There is no _____ code and no _____ code in England. The law as a whole consists partly of __________, partly of _______________ and partly of _________. 8. The trial before the magistrates can only occur when a guilty _____ is entered; there is therefore never a _____ trial in a magistrate’s court. III. Questions for Discussion 1. What is the primary function of Parliament? 2. Who are the members of the House of Lords? 3. What are the processes of passing a public bill? 4. Why do the criminal convicts like to be tried first by magistrates’ courts? Chapter XII Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The Whig took the name ―Liberal‖, while the Tories became the Conservative after __________. A. 1760 B. 1830 C. 1832 D. 1916 2. The Labour Party became one of the two major parties after _______. A. 1916 B. 1922 C. 1930 D. 1945 3. The Conservative Party supports the following policies except ________________. A. denationalization B. free enterprise C. extending the social service D. cautious social reform 4. Which one is not correct to comment on the Labour Party? A. It is a party of unti-Communism. B. It is in favour of social and economic equality. C. It is less radical in dealing with foreign affairs. D. It is a real socialist party. 5. The Labour Party Conference is attended by ______ from trade unions and local associations. A. representatives B. delegates C. party leaders D. Labour MPs 6. The third largest political party in Britain is the ___________. A. Social Democratic Party B. Liberal Party C. British Communist Party D. Ulster Unionist Party 7. With the aim of gaining more seats at a general election the Liberal Party formed an official alliance in 1981 with _____. A. the SDP B. the Labour Party C. the British Communists D. the Ulster Unionists 8. During a general election the amount of money each candidate can spend is ____________. A. limited by his party B. limited by law C. limited by government D. unlimited II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The United Kingdom has a ____-party system. The present two major parties are the ______________ and the ________ parties. 2. In _______ the Liberal Party split into two halves, and soon lost its place to the ________ Party. 3. The Establishment in Britain refers to the top _______ sectors of society, in particular, ____________ and business leaders, the ______________ and the Church of England. 4. The Labour Party was founded in ______ by a union between the trade unions and socialist groups, including the ___________________ Party and the ________ Society. It first took the name Labour Party in ________. 5. The British Communist Party was founded in _______, and it changed its name into the ―Democratic Left‖ in ______ after the collapse of the ___________, while a __________ of the party determined to stick with the old name. 6. Voting in Britain is ____ compulsory. The candidate who gets the ________ votes in the constituency is elected. The party that wins a __________ of seats in the House of Commons will form the government, and its leader will be the _______________. Another major political party will form the ___________. Its chief members who sit on the front bench in House of Commons are called ___________. They are the members of the ____________ Cabinet III. Questions for Discussion 1. What are the general policies of the Conservative Party? 2. Who usually support the Conservative Party in Britain? 3. From what areas does the Labour Party usually draw its support? 4. How does the Labour Party elect its leader now? 5. How do the decisions of the Labour Party conference influence its MPs? 6. How do you understand that government may be formed by a party with a majority of seats but fewer votes than the principle opposing parties? Chapter XIII Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The LEA is responsible for the following matters except __________. A. engaging teachers B. maintaining school buildings C. paying teachers D. holding examinations 2. The curriculum and teaching methods in a state school is usually decided by the __________. A. LEA B. Education Committee C. CEO D. Head Teacher 3. Which aim is more important in primary education? A. To teach children some skills. B. To make children learn more knowledge. C. To foster the potentialities of children. D. To help children get good marks for examination. 4. What kind of secondary schools now receives the largest number of students? A. Grammar Schools. B. Technical Schools. C. Comprehensive Schools. D. Secondary Modern Schools. 5. Which is incorrect to describe the public schools? A. They are independent schools. B. They emphasize the importance of character training. C. They are fee-free schools. D. They pay higher salaries for their teachers. 6. The income of Oxford University is derived mainly from ________. A. endowments and students’ fee B. grants from public funds C. financial support from government D. rates of local governments 7. The most famous redbrick university is __________. A. Oxford University B. Cambridge University C. London University D. Bristol University 8. Open University communicates with its students mainly by __________. A. BBC radio B. television programs C. national network of tutors D. all above II. Fill in the blanks. 1. Theoretically the ultimate responsibility for statutory system of public education in England and Wales lies with the __________________. 2. The current law requires that _________ instructions shall be given in all ___________ primary and secondary schools in England and Wales. 3. The nursery school period is a period of ______ and _______ formation, with as much attention to social _________ and physical health as to preparation for more _______ learning. 4. The eleven-plus examination is now abandoned in _____ schools. Pupils can directly go to __________ schools after finishing their __________ education. 5. The secondary education was originally a _________ system in England and Wales, with grammar school taking the ____________ pupils, technical schools taking those with a bent for _________ skills, and the ________________ schools taking the rest. In recent years ________________ schools have been developing very fast. They are designed to merge the three ranges of pupils into one school. 6. Public schools are _________ schools. The four famous ones the text mentions are ________________, _____________, _________________, and _________________. 7. All British universities are ___________ and self-_________, though they receive aid from government. 8. Universities in England and Wales can be roughly divided into three groups. They are ______________, ____________, and ________________. III. Questions for Discussion 1. What are the responsibilities of the DES? 2. Do you agree with the opinion that the best way to ensure good result in education is to charge one person to control the school affairs? Why? 3. How do you know the length of compulsory education in England? 4. How do the universities in England get their income? 5. How do you comment on the Open University? Chapter XIV Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. The BBC began its regular TV service in __________. A. 1922 B. 1927 C. 1936 D. 1945 2. If an Englishman wants to enjoy light music, he can select the station of _____________. A. Radio 1 B. Radio 2 C. Radio 3 D. Radio 4 3. According to the text, the most popular TV channel in Britain is ___________. A. ITV B. BBC-1 C. BBC-2 D. TV-am 4. ―Fleet Street‖ is frequently used to stand for _____________. A. London B. newspapers C. the Press D. national newspapers 5. Which one in the following is not a quality paper? A. Daily Telegraph. B. The Tomes. C. Daily Express D. The Guardian. 6. Which one is not a popular paper? A. Daily Star. B. The Observer. C. Mirror. D. Sunday People. 7. The Standard is noted for _____________________. A. up-to-the-minue reporting B. large advertising sections C. popular features and profiles of the people in the news D. all above 8. Which one in the following gives the viewpoint of the left wing of the Labour Party? A. Economists. B. Spectator. C. Tribune. D. Punch. II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The motto of the BBC is ―___________________________‖. 2. The BBC was founded in ______. It now has _____ national radio stations, and _____ TV channels. 3. BBC-1 mainly transmits programs of ____________, while BBC-2 transmits programs that are more ____________ than those of BBC-1. 4. The BBC is managed by a board of _____ governors, whose chairman is appointed by the Queen on the advice of the ____________________. The board then appoints the ______________ and the board of management. It is the duty of the board of management to ensure that the BBC is free of ____________ and that no __________ or biased programs are broadcast. 5. Quality newspapers are the ones that aim at the ________ readers, while the popular papers aim at the _________ readers. The style of English in popular newspapers is often ___________ or conversational with much use of ______, ____________ and catchy _________. 6. Punch is a long-established __________ and satirical magazine that has a reputation for the high standard of its ________ and _________ criticism. 7. In Britain newspapers can say what they like about anyone and anything, provided that they nothing ―________‖ or ―_________‖. III. Questions for Discussion 1. Why is the average daily readership of newspapers in the UK larger than that in other western countries? 2. What are the differences between quality papers and popular papers? 3. What are the common characters of the women’s magazines? 4. What are the responsibilities of the Press Council? Chapter XV Exercises I. Choose the correct answer. 1. According to the English law, no person can get married below the age of _______. A. 16 B. 18 C. 20 D. 21 2. In England a wedding ceremony in a registry office is usually ________________. A. more formal than that in a church B. required by law C. very grand and formal D. less formal than in a church 3. The commercially produced breakfast cereal first started in __________. A. America B. England C. Scotland D. Wales 4. In Britain supper means __________________. A. an evening dinner B. a formal meal in the evening C. a sumptuous dinner D. a light meal in the evening 5. The decimal currency came into use in Britain in _______. A. 1960 B. 1969 C. 1971 D. 1973 6. Which is incorrect to describe the pub in Britain? A. Children under 16 are not admitted to a pub. B. The main drink served in pubs is beer. C. Most pubs sell all kinds of alcohol. D. The pubs are open all day. 7. Generally speaking the English are ____________. A. talkative in public places B. hostile to radical changes C. quarrelsome D. impatient of waiting for buses 8. The Beatles were ___________________. A. four famous solo stars B. four American musicians C. a pop group formed in Liverpool D. a pop group who were from America II. Fill in the blanks. 1. The engagement ring is placed on the ______ finger of the girl’s _____ hand, which is simply a public declaration of ____________ and a means of ____________ attentions of other young men. 2. Dinner is the ___________ of the day. It may be taken either at _________ or in the ___________. 3. The light meal of afternoon tea is known as ____________, which is actually a mixture of tea and supper. 4. The typical character of the English is ______________, which is reflected in their attitude to accept the _______ thing and to be suspicious of anything that is _______ or _______. 5. Many people think English humor is ______ oriented while American humor is more ________ oriented. 6. The ______ revolution of the 1960s greatly changed the _________ of English life. III. Questions for Discussion 1. What is a permissive society? 2. What is the continental breakfast? 3. What is the ploughman’s lunch? 4. How and where do the English engage in social contact? 5. Can you give more examples to show the British conservatism? 6. Compare some Chinese customs with the English ones. What do you know about the English taboos?
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