同济医学院药理学考试题

同济医学院药理学考试 本轮试卷分ABCD共4套，各套试卷完全独立 1．在一级消除动力学中，如果每隔一个t给药一次，则血浆中药物浓度经过（ ）个t后，可以达稳态。 1/21/2 A.1 B.3 C.5 D.7 E.9 2．在碱性尿液中巴比妥类药物（ ） A.解离多，再吸收少，排泄快 B.解离少，再吸收少，排泄快 C.解离多，再吸收多，排泄慢 D.解离少，再吸收多，排泄慢 E.排泄速度不变 3．pKa值是（ ） A.药物99％解离时的pH值 B.药物50％解离时的pH值 C.药物全部解离时的pH值 D.药物不解离时的pH值 E.药物90％解离时的pH值 4．竞争性拮抗药效价强度参数pA 的定义是（ ） 2-1 A．使激动药的效应减弱一半时的拮抗药浓度（ mol?L）的负对数 -1 B．使加倍浓度的激动药仍保持原有效价强度的拮抗药浓度（mol?L）的负对数 -1 C．使拮抗药始终保持原有效价强度的激动药浓度（mol?L）的负对数 -1 D． 使激动药效应减弱至零时的拮抗药浓度（mol?L）的负对数 -1 E．使激动药效应加强一倍的拮抗药浓度（mol?L）的负对数 5．药物的pD大，说明（ ） 2 A.药物与受体亲和力小，用药剂量大 B.药物与受体亲和力大，用药剂量小 C.药物与受体亲和力小, 用药剂量小 D.药物与受体亲和力大，用药剂量大 E.以上均不对 6．药物的治疗指数是（ ） A.ED/LD的比值 B.ED/LD的比值 9555050 C.LD/ ED的比值 D.ED与LD之间的距离 50505050 E.ED/LD的比值 9010 7．促进药物在肝内的代谢主要的系统是（ ） A.葡萄糖醛酸转移酶 B.细胞色素P-450酶系统 C.单氨氧化酶 D.水解酶 E.辅酶? 8．安慰剂（placebo）是一种（ ） A．阳性对照药 B. 口服制剂 C．可以增加疗效的药物 D. 使病人得到安慰的药物 E．不具有药理活性的剂型 9．毛果芸香碱对眼睛的作用是（ ） A. 散瞳，降低眼内压，调节麻痹 B. 缩瞳，降低眼内压，调节痉挛 C. 缩瞳，降低眼内压，调节麻痹 D. 缩瞳，升高眼内压，调节痉挛 E. 散瞳，升高眼内压，调节麻痹 10．阿托品可用于治疗（ ） A．室性早搏 B. 窦性心动过速 C．房室传导阻滞 D. 阵发性室上性心动过速 E．房性早搏 11．可用于抗晕动病的药物是（ ） A．山莨菪碱 B. 氯丙嗪 C．东莨菪碱 D. 后马托品 E．阿托品 12．肾上腺素与异丙肾上腺素的共同适应证是（ ） A．过敏性休克 B. 局部止血 C．房室传导阻滞 D. 支气管哮喘急性发作 E．延长局麻药的麻醉作用时间 受体 B. 阻断胃泌素受体 2++13．奥美拉唑抗消化性溃疡的机制是（ ） C．促进胃黏液分泌，保护胃黏膜 D. 抑制H，K-ATP酶 A．阻断H E．阻断M-胆碱受体 1 14．强心苷中毒所致心律失常宜选用的最佳药物是（ ） A. 奎尼丁 B. 普萘洛尔 C.胺碘酮 D. 维拉帕米 E.苯妥英钠 15．维拉帕米对下列哪种心律失常的疗效最好（ ） A．室性心动过速 B. 阵发性室上性心动过速 C．室性早搏 D房室传导阻滞 E．强心苷中毒所致心律失常 16．选择性扩张脑血管的钙通道阻滞药是（ ） A. 硝苯地平 B. 维拉帕米 C.地尔硫卓 D. 尼莫地平 E．氨氯地平 17．强心苷治疗心房颤动的作用机制是（ ） A.延长心房有效不应期 B.减慢房室传导 C.降低浦肯野纤维自律性 D.抑制窦房结 E.缩短心房有效不应期 18．属于高效能的利尿药是（ ） A.呋塞米 B.螺内酯 C.氨苯蝶啶 D.乙酰唑胺 E.氢氯噻嗪 19．L型钙通道的主要功能单位是（ ） A. α 亚单位 B. α亚单位 12 C. β亚单位 D. γ亚单位 E. δ亚单位 20．在体内、体外均有抗凝血作用的药物是（ ） A. 维生素K B. 香豆素类 C. 阿司匹林 D. 肝素 E.维生素B 12 21．由甲氨蝶呤、乙胺嘧啶所致巨幼红细胞性贫血宜用（ ） A. 叶酸 B. 维生素B 12 C. 甲酰四氢叶酸钙 D. 铁剂 E.维生素B 6 22．长期应用后不能突然停药的治疗心绞痛药物是（ ） A．硝苯地平 B. 普萘洛尔 C．硝酸甘油 D. 硝酸异山梨酯 E．氨氯地平 23．具有中枢降压作用的药物是（ ） A．米诺地尔 B. 哌唑嗪 C．肼屈嗪 D. 胍乙啶 E．可乐定 24．人工合成的单环β-内酰胺类药物是（ ） A．亚胺培南 B. 氨曲南 C．头孢氨苄 D. 克拉维酸 E．舒巴坦 25．肾毒性最严重的氨基苷类药物是（ ） A．卡那霉素 B. 西索米星 C．奈替米星 D. 庆大霉素 E．新霉素 26．治疗伤寒、副伤寒的首选药是（ ） A．青霉素 G B. 链霉素 C．四环素 D. 米诺环素 E．氯霉素 27．治疗支原体肺炎的首选药物是（ ） A. 青霉素 G B. 链霉素 C. 四环素 D. 氯霉素 E. 异烟肼 28．用于治疗立克次体感染的首选药物是（ ） A. 磺胺嘧啶 B. 链霉素 C. 四环素 D. 庆大霉素 E. 多粘菌素B 29．用于治疗鼠疫的首选药物是（ ） A．青霉素 G B. 链霉素 C．红霉素 D. 万古霉素 E．林可霉素 30．阿片受体阻断药是（ ） A. 吗啡 B.美沙酮 C.哌替啶 D. 芬太尼 E. 纳络酮 31．可引起“灰婴综合征”不良反应的药物是（ ） 32．对骨骼及牙生长有影响的药物是（ ） A．青霉素 G B. 链霉素 C．四环素 D. 氯霉素 E．红霉素 33．新生儿出血宜选用（ ） 34．过量肝素所致的出血宜选用（ ） A．维生素K B. 鱼精蛋白 C．维生素C D. 氨甲苯酸 E．垂体后叶素 35．喹诺酮类药物的抗菌机制是（ ） 36．磺胺类药物的抗菌机制是（ ） A．抑制二氢叶酸合成酶 B. 抑制二氢叶酸还原酶 C．抑制细胞壁的合成 D，抑制细菌蛋白质的合成 E．抑制DNA螺旋酶 37．环磷酰胺可用于（ ） 38．利巴韦林可用于（ ） A．抗风湿 B. 抗肿瘤 C．抗病毒 D. 抗寄生虫 E．抗哮喘 39．主要作用于髓袢升枝粗段髓质部和皮质部的利尿药是（ ） 40．主要作用于升枝粗段皮质部（远曲小管近端）的利尿药是（ ） A. 氢氯噻嗪 B. 氨苯蝶啶 C. 阿米洛利 D. 螺内酯 E.呋塞米 41．可引起干咳不良反应的药物（ ） 42．可引起踝部水肿不良反应的药物（ ） A．卡托普利 B. 硝苯地平 C．是A是B D. 非A非B 43．可用于治疗心房颤动的药物（ ） 44．可用于治疗充血性心力衰竭的药物（ ） A．奎尼丁 B. 地高辛 C.是A是B D.非A非B 45．用于肾病综合征（ ） 46．用于麻疹或真菌感染（ ） A．泼尼松 B. 氟轻松 C．是A是B D. 非A非B 47．甲状腺功能亢进的术前准备可选用（ ） 48．可用于甲状腺功能检查的药物是（ ） A.复方碘溶液 B. 甲硫氧嘧啶 C.是A是B D.非A非B 49．奎尼丁（ ） +2+内流 B.抑制胞外Ca内流 50. 硝苯地平（ ） C.是A是B D.非A非B A.抑制胞外Na （每题2分，共8分） 51. 一级消除动力学 52. 生物利用度 53. 配体门控离子通道受体 54. 竞争性拮抗药 （每1药名0.5分，共4分） 55. 硝苯地平 59. dexamethasone 56. 卡托普利 60. prednisone 57. 地高辛 61. diazepam 58. 可的松 62. levodopa （每题4分，共8分） 63. 简述抗高血压药物的首选类药物及其代药。 64. 简述常用抗心律失常药物的分类及其代表药。 （每题10分，共30分） 65.试述氯丙嗪的药理作用、临床应用及不良反应。 66.试比较吗啡与哌替啶的药理作用及临床应用。 67.试比较ACE抑制药和AT 受体阻断药在药理作用机制、临床应用及不良反应等方面的异同点。 1 参考： 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C B B B B C B E B C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 C D D E B D B A A D 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 C B E B E E C C B E 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 D C A B E A B C E A 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 A B C B A D C D C B （2005年7月） 姓名： 学号： 班级： 1. 严重肝病者，不宜应用 A氢化可的松 D 泼尼松 B倍他米松 E 地塞米松 C泼尼松龙 2. 药物的半数致死量是指 A杀死半数病原微生物的剂量 D杀死半数寄生虫的剂量 B中毒量的两倍剂量 E 引起半数动物死亡的剂量 C大于中毒量的剂量 3.在碱性尿中巴比妥类药物 A.解离多，再吸收多，排泄慢 D.解离多，再吸收少，排泄快 B.排泄速度不变 E.解离少，再吸收少，排泄快 C.解离少，再吸收多，排泄慢 4. 不利于铁剂在肠道吸收的物质是 A抗酸药 D 维生素C B果糖 E 稀盐酸 C半胱氨酸 5. 长期应用林可霉素类药物后，可能引起的严重不良反应是 A过敏反应 D肾损害 B耳聋 E中枢抑制 C假膜性肠炎 6.毛果芸香碱对眼的作用是 A.瞳孔扩大，降低眼内压，调节麻痹 B.瞳孔缩小，降低眼内压，调节麻痹 C.瞳孔缩小，升高眼内压，调节痉挛 D.瞳孔缩小，降低眼内压，调节痉挛 E.瞳孔扩大，升高眼内压，调节麻痹 7.兼有抗利尿作用的口服降血糖药是: A. 甲苯磺丁脲 D 丙硫氧嘧啶 B. 甲巯咪唑 E 胰岛素 C. 氯磺丙脲 8. 下列应首选维拉帕米治疗的心律失常是 A房室传导阻滞 D 室性心动过速 B强心苷中毒所致心律失常 E 室性早搏 C阵发性室上性心动过速 9. 兼有抗室性心律失常作用的抗癫痫(癎)药是 A普鲁卡因 D 布比卡因 B苯妥英钠 E 丁卡因 C利多卡因 10. 能抑制外周氨基酸脱羧酶（AADC）的药物是 A金刚烷胺 D溴隐亭 B司来吉米 E 硝替卡朋 C卡比多巴 11. 广谱抗真菌药是 A氟胞嘧啶 D制霉菌素 B灰黄霉素 E 酮康唑 C两性霉素B 12. 耐酸、耐酶的半合成青霉素是 A阿莫西林 D 羧苄西林 B氨苄西林 E 哌拉西林 D维生素B2 6 C苯唑西林 B维生素B E维生素B13. 长期应用异烟肼的病人应同时服用 12 1 C维生素C A维生素B 14. 氯丙嗪对下列呕吐效的是 A. 晕动病 D妊娠 B. 去水吗啡 E 癌症 C. 放射病 15. 肾上腺素与异丙肾上腺素共同的适应证是: A. 过敏性休克 D房室传导阻滞 B. 支气管哮喘 E.局部止血 C. 延长局麻药的麻醉时间 16.能引起便秘的钙通道阻滞药是 A.普尼拉明 D维拉帕米 B.哌克昔林 E尼莫地平 C.硝苯地平 17.肝素抗凝作用的机制是 A与维生素K产生拮抗作用 D降低血中钙离子浓度 B抗凝血因子?、?、?、?合成 E抑制血小板聚集 C 增强AT III对凝血因子的灭活 18. 地西泮抗焦虑作用的主要部位在 A边缘系统 D下丘脑 B大脑皮层 E黑质—纹状体 C中脑网状结构 19. 细菌对氨基苷类抗生素产生耐药的主要原因是 A细胞膜的通透性发生了改变 D产生了大量PABA B产生了钝化酶 E改变了代谢途径 C产生了水解酶 20. 哌仑西平抗消化性溃疡的机制是 A阻断M 胆碱受体，减少胃酸分泌 D阻断H受体，减少胃酸分泌 32++B阻断M胆碱受体，减少胃酸分泌 E抑制H-K-ATP酶 1 C抑制促胃液素受体及胃酸分泌 21. 肾毒、耳毒作用发生率最高的药物是 A 妥布霉素 D链霉素 B卡那霉素 E新霉素 C氯霉素 22. 他汀类药物最适用于治疗 A IIa型高脂蛋白血症 D IV型高脂蛋白血症 B IIb型高脂蛋白血症 E V型高脂蛋白血症 C III型高脂蛋白血症 23. 主要作用于髄袢升支粗段皮质部和远曲小管始段的中效利尿药是 A呋塞米 D依他尼酸 B布美他尼 E 螺内酯 C吲达帕胺 24..普萘洛尔和硝酸甘油治疗心绞痛的共同作用是 A.降低心肌耗氧量 D.缩小心室容积 B.扩张冠状动脉 E.抑制心肌收缩力 C.减慢心率 25.强心苷治疗心房颤动的作用机制是 A.降低浦肯野纤维自律性 D.延长心房有效不应期 B.减慢房室传导 E.抑制窦房结 C.缩短心房有效不应期 26.强心苷中毒所致心律失常可选用的最佳药物是 A.胺碘酮 D.苯妥英钠 B.美托洛尔 E.利多卡因 C.普萘洛尔 27. 对各型癫痫均有效的药物是 A.乙琥胺 D扑米酮 B丙戊酸钠 E.苯妥英钠 C卡马西平 28. 用链激酶进行溶栓治疗时，最常见的不良反应是 A血小板减少 D 出血 B粒细胞缺乏 E 贫血 C低蛋白血症 29.作用于髄袢升支粗段髓质部和皮质部的利尿药是 A.氨苯蝶啶 D.乙酰唑胺 B.氢氯噻嗪 E.螺内酯 C.呋塞米 30. 下列抗炎作用的解热镇痛药是: A阿司匹林 D对乙酰氨基酚 B布洛芬 E保泰松 C吲哚美辛 31.阿托品的禁忌证是 32 甘露醇的禁忌证是 A 青光眼 D中毒性休克 B慢性心功能不全 E虹膜睫状体炎 C支气管哮喘 33新斯的明可用于治疗 34毛果芸香碱可用于治疗 A缓慢型心律失常 D窦性心动过速 B晕动病 E重症肌无力 C青光眼 35. 环磷酰胺可用于 36. 利巴韦林可用于 A.抗风湿 D 抗肿瘤 B.抗病毒 E 抗疟疾 C.抗哮喘 37. 能抑制病毒穿入及脱壳的药物是 38. 能加强多巴胺功能的药物是 A. 金刚烷胺 D利巴韦林 B. 碘苷 E 阿糖腺苷 C. 阿昔洛韦 39.β-内酰胺类抗生素的抗菌机制是 40.氯霉素的抗菌机制是 A.抑制二氢叶酸合成酶 D抑制细菌蛋白质合成 B.抑制二氢叶酸还原酶 E抑制螺旋酶 C.抑制细菌细胞壁合成 41. M-胆碱受体阻断药是 42.具有骨骼肌松弛作用的药物是 A山莨菪碱 C“A和B” B阿托品 D“非A非B” 43. 抢救心脏骤停可选用 44. 抢救过敏性休克可选用 A 肾上腺素 C“A和B” B 异丙肾上腺素 D“非A非B” 45.绝对延长ERP 的药物是 46.具有抗心律失常作用的药物是 A.奎尼丁 C“A和B” B.利多卡因 D“非A非B” 47.治疗心绞痛选用 48.治疗高血压选用 A.维拉帕米 C“A和B” B.硝酸甘油 D“非A非B” 49. 具有钾通道阻滞作用的药物是 50. 可用于治疗心房颤动的药物是 A. 格列本脲 C“A和B” B. 胺碘酮 D“非A非B” （每题2分，共8分） 51.Vd 2 52.pA53.首关消除 54.二重感染 （每1药 名0.5分，共4分） 55. 甘露醇 59 .furosemide 56 肾上腺素 60. nifedipine 57 地高辛 61. streptomycin 58. 青霉素 62. codeine （每题6分，共18分） 63. 简述肝素的临床用途。 64. 简述抗精神病药的分类及其代表药。 65. 简述阿司匹林的作用及用途。 （每题10分，共20分） 66. 试述β受体阻断药的药理作用及临床应用。 67. 试比较ACE抑制药和AT 阻断药在作用机制、临床应用方面的异同点。 I 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 D E D A C D C C B C 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 E C D A B D C A B B 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 E A C A B D B D C D 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A B E C D B A A C D 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 C D C A A C C A C B Pharmacological Examination(in English)( A type examinational paper) 2002 Class (7-year system) (July,2005) The examinational paper are divided into “A” or “B” type examinational paper. Each is independent. Name Student’s number Class No. Multiple-choice questions A type questions: Direction: Each question below contains five suggested answers. Choose the one best answer to each question (1 mark/each question, total=30 marks) 1. For drugs displaying first-order kinetics, the time to reach steady-state is usually equal to ( ) A. 1 Half-Life B. 3 Half-Lives C. 5 Half-Lives D. 7 Half-Lives E. 9 Half-Lives 2. An acidic drug (such as phenobarbital) in alkaline urine, ( ) A. its dissociation decreased, reabsorption increased and excreted slowly B. its dissociation increased, reabsorption decreased and excreted rapidly C. its dissociation decreased, reabsorption decreased and excreted rapidly D. its dissociation increased, reabsorption increased and excreted slowly E. the speed of excretion is not changed 3. The pKa of a drug is defined as ( ) A. the pH at which 99% of the molecules in solution are in the ionized form B. the pH at which 50% of the molecules in solution are in the ionized form C. the pH at which 100% of the molecules in solution are in the ionized form D. the pH at which none of the molecules in solution are in the ionized form value is greater, it means that ( ) 2 E. the pH at which 90% of the molecules in solution are in the ionized form A. the affinity between drug and receptor is stronger, the dose of drug used in the experiment is larger 4. If the pD B. the affinity between drug and receptor is stronger, the dose of drug used in the experiment is smaller C. the affinity between drug and receptor is weaker, the dose of drug used in the experiment is smaller D. the affinity between drug and receptor is weaker, the dose of drug used in the experiment is larger E. all the statements mentioned above (A,B,C,D) are incorrect 5. A weak acidic drug with pKa value of 3.4, in blood plasma(pH=7.4) the percentage of dissociation is about ( ) A. 10% B. 90% C. 99% D. 99.9% E. 99.99% 6. The therapeutic index is ( ) A. the ratio of ED/LDB. the ratio of ED/LD 9010 955 C. the ratio of ED/LDD. the ratio of LD/ED 5050 5050E. the distance between ED and LD 50507. The main enzyme system in the liver that metabolizes drug is ( ) A. NADP B. glucuronide transferase B. cytochrome P450 D. monoamine oxidase E. hydrolyse 8. Placebo is a kind of ( ) A. positive control drug B. orally used-preparation C. drug which can increase the therapeutic effects D. drug which produces sedative effects in patients E. preparation without pharmacological activities. 9. The effects of pilocarpine on eye are ( ) A. mydriasis, decrease in intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation (cycloplegia) B. miosis, decrease in intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation C. miosis, decrease in intraocular pressure, spasm of accommodation D. miosis, rise in intraocular pressure, spasm of accommodation E. mydriasis, rise in intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation 10. Atropine can be used for the treatment of ( ) A. ventricular extrasystole B. sinus tachycardia C. A-V block ( atrioventricular conduction block) D. paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia E. atrial extrasystole 11. Which drug can be used for the treatment of motion sickness ( ) A. anisodamine B. chlorpromazine C. scopolamine D. homatropine E. atropine 12.The common indication for using adrenaline or isoprenaline is ( ) A. anaphylactic shock B. local bleeding C. A-V block D. asthma acute attack E. to prolong the effective time of local anesthesia 13. Stimulation of N receptors can predominately cause ( ) 2 A. inhibition of heart function B. excitation of ganglia C. contration of skeletal muscles D. constriction of bronchial smooth muscle E. constriction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle. 14. The best drug for the treatment of digitalis-induced tachycardia arrhythmias is ( ) A. quinidine B. propranolol C. amiodarone D. verapamil E. phenytoin sodium 15.Which type of arrhythmia can be treated most effectively by administration of verapamil ( ) A. ventricular tachycardia B. paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C. ventricular extrasystole D. A-V block E. arrhythmia caused by digitalis intoxication 16. Calcium antagonist which selectively dilates cerebral vessels is ( ) A. nifedipine B. verapamil C. diltiazem D. nimodipine E. amlodipine 17. The mechamism of action of cardiac glycoside on atrial fibrillation is related ( ) A. to the prolongation of atrial effective refractory period B. to the decrease in A-V conduction C. to the decrease in automaticity of Purkinje’s fibers D. to its inhibitory effect on sinus node E. to the shortening of atrial effective refractory period 18. The diuretic agent with moderate efficacy of sodium excretion is ( ) A. furosemide B. spironolactone C. triamterene D. hydrochlorothiazide E. acetazolamide 19.The drug which inhibits blood coagulation in vivo and in vitro is ( ) A. vitamin K B. warfarin C. aspirin D. heparin E. vitamin B 20.The central antihypertensive drug is ( ) A. prazosin B. guanethidine C. hydralazine D. minoxidil E. clonidine 21. Which drug belongs to cholinesterase regenerator compound ( ) A. neostigmine B. physostigmine C. anisodamine D. scopolamine E. pralidoxime iodide (PAM) 22. Which drug belongs to dihydropyridines calcium antagonist ( ) A. verapamil B. nifedipine C. diltiazem D. captopril E. losartan 23. The mechanism of antibacterial action of quinolones is ( ) A. inhibition of bacterial dihydropteroate synthase B. inhibition of bacterial dihydrofolate acid reductase C. inhibition of bacterial DNA gyrase D. inhibition of the formation of bacterial cell wall E. inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis 24. The antimicrobial agent aminoglycoside which possesses significant ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity is ( ) A. kanamycin B. gentamycin C. sisomicin D. netilmicin E. neomycin 25.The beta-lactam antibiotic which possesses nephrotoxicity is ( ) A. penicillin G B. penicillin resistant to staphylococcal beta-lactamase C. extended-spectrum penicillins D. first generation cephalosporins E. third generation cephalosporins 26.The antibiotic which may cause a rare idiosyncratic aplastic anemica is ( ) A. penicillin G B. streptomycin C. erythromycin D. chloramphenicol E. tetracycline 27. The first-choice drug used for the treatment of plague is ( ) A. penicillin G B. streptomycin C. erythromycin D. chloramphenicol E. vancomycin 28. The first-choice drug for the treatment of typhoid fever is ( ) A. penicillin G B. chloramphenicol C. tetracycline D. streptomycin E. minocycline 29. The opioid receptor antagonist is ( ) A. morphine B. codeine C. fentanyl D. enkephalin E. naloxone 30. Which antianginal drug can’t be stopped suddenly in long term administration( ) A. nifedipine B. propranolol C. nitroglycerin D. isosorbide dinitrate E. amlodipine B type questions (1 mark/each question, total=10 marks) Direction: In the following groups of questions, each question below contains five suggested answers. According to the meaning of question, choose the one best answer to each question. Each lettered choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. 31. Which antibiotic may cause the toxic reaction“gray baby syndrome”( vomiting, irregular respiration, ashen-gray color, cyanosis) ( ) 32. Which antibiotic can cause discolouration and deformity in growing teeth and bone( ) A. penicillin G B. streptomycin C. erythromycin D. chloramphenicol E. tetracycline 33. The drug which can be used for the treatment of bleeding in neonate is ( ) 34. The drug which can be used for the treatment of bleeding caused by overdose of heparin is ( ) A. vitmin K B. protamine C. vitamin C D. aminomethyl benzoic acid ( PAMBA) E. pituitrin 35. Trimethoprim (TMP) inhibits ( ) 36. Sulfonamides inhibit ( ) A. bacterial dihydropteroate synthase B. bacterial dihydrofolate acid reductase C. bacterial DNA gyrase D. the formation of bacterial cell wall E. bacterial protein synthesis + ++ reabsorption and K, Hsecretion ( ) 37. The diuretic agent mainly acting on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is ( ) A. hydrochlorothiazide B. spironolactone 38. Competitive antagonist at aldosterone receptors and thus reduces Na C. furosemide D. amiloride E. acetazolamide 39. Prazosin selectively blocks ( ) 40. Atenolol selectively blocks ( ) A. α-receptor B.α-receptor 12C. β-receptor D. β-receptor 12E. D-receptor 1 C type questions (1 mark/each question, total=10 marks) Direction: In the following groups of questions, each question below contains four suggested answers of which one is right. After careful comparison of the suggested answers, choose the right answer. 41. Lidocaine ( ) 42. Verapamil ( ) +A. inhibition of Na influx 2+ B. inhibition of Cainflux C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect 43. ( ) can be used for the treatment of atrial fibrillation. 44. ( ) can be used for the treatment of congestive heart failure A. quinidine B. digitoxin C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect 45. ( ) can be used for the treatment of hypertension. 46. ( ) can be used for the treatment of AV node block A. verapamil B. propranolol C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect 47. ( ) can be used for the treatment of classic angina(“angina of effort”) 48. ( ) can be used for the treatment of variant angina A. nifedipine B. propranolol C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect 49. ( ) can cause adverse reaction:liver damage. 50. ( ) can cause adverse reaction:disturbance of vestibular function A. streptomycin B. tetracycline C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect . Explain the following terms (2 marks /each question, total=8marks) 51. first-order elimination kinetics 52. bioavailability 53. competitive antagonist 54. first-pass elimination Short-answer questions (4 marks /each question, total=12 marks) 55. List the types of drug receptors 56. List the first-choice drugs of antihypertensive drugs 57. Classification of antiarrhythmic drugs (list the kinds of antiarrhythmic drugs, and one representative drugs name for each kind of drug) Answer the following questions (10 marks /each question, total=30 marks) 58. Compare the pharmacological effects and clinical uses of morphine with that of pethidine (dolantin) 59. Compare the mechanism of action, adverse reactions of captopril with that of losartan 60. Describe the pharmacological effects and clinical uses of chlorpromazine. I. Multiple-choice questions 1 C 2 B 3 B 4 B 5 E 6 D 7 B 8 E 9 C 10 C 11 C 12 D 13 C 14 E 15 B 16 D 17 B 18 D 19 D 20 E 21 E 22 B 23 C 24 E 25 D 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 E 30 B 31 D 32 E 33 A 34 B 35 B 36 A 37 C 38 B 39 A 40 C 41 A 42 B 43 C 44 B 45 C 46 D 47 C 48 A 49 B 50 A Pharmacological examination(in English) A type examinational paper 2002 Class (English nurse system) (2005.6) The examinational papers are divided into “A” or “B” type examinational paper. Each is independent. Name student’s number class No. I. Multiple-choice questions A type questions: Direction: each question below contains five suggested answers. Choose the one best answer to each question. (1 mark/each question, total=30marks) 1. Which antibiotic can cause anaphylactic shock ( ) A. erythromycin B. chloramphenicol C. penicillin G D. tetracycline E. azithromycin 2. The drug for the treatment of anaphylactic shock is ( ) A. ephedrine B. adrenaline C. noradrenaline D. isoprenaline E. methoxamine 3. The first-choice drug for the treatment of typhoid fever is ( ) A. streptomycin B. penicillin G C. chloramphenicol D. tetracycline E. minocycline 4. Penicillin G inhibits ( ) A. bacterial dihydropteroate synthase B. bacterial dihydrofolic acid reductase C. bacterial DNA gyrase D. bacterial protein synthesis E. the formation of bacterial cell wall 5. Quinolones inhibits ( ) A. bacterial dihydropteroate synthase B. bacterial dihydrofolic acid reductase C. bacterial DNA gyrase D. the formation of bacterial cell wall E. bacterial protein synthesis 6. The beta-lactam antibiotic which possesses nephrotoxicity is ( ) A. penicillin G B. methicillin C. amoxicillin D. first generation cephalosporins E. third generation cephalosporins 7. Which drug can be used for the treatment of mycoplasma-induced pneumonia( ) A. penicillin G B. chloramphenicol C. streptomycin D.tetracycline E. doxycycline 8. Which drug can be used for the treatment of syphilis ( ) A. gentamycin B. chloramphenicol C. penicillin G D. sulfonamides E. quinolones 9. Which drug can be used for the treatment of rickettsiae infection ( ) A. sulfadiazine (SD) B. tetracycline C. streptomycin D. gentamycin E. polymyxin B 10. The drug which has highly selective and strongest bactericidal effect on tubercle bacilli is ( ) A. streptomycin B. isoniazid C. pyrazinamide D. ethambutol E. sodium para-aminosalicylate(PAS-Na) -receptor B. α-receptor 1211. Propranolol blocks ( ) C. β-receptor D. β-receptor 12 A.αE. both β-and β-receptors 1212. Adrenaline activates ( ) A. α-receptor B. α-receptor 12C. β-receptor D. β-receptor 12 E. both α-and β-receptors 13. Atropine blocks ( ) A. M-receptor B. M- receptor 12 C. M-receptor D. M+M receptors 312 E. M+M+M receptors 12314. Metoprolol blocks ( ) A. α-receptor B. β-receptor 11 C. α-receptor D. β-receptor 22 E. α+β receptors 15. Losartan selectively blocks ( ) A. α-receptor B.α-receptor 12 C.AT-receptor D. I-imidazoline receptor 11 E. AT-receptor 2 16. The antipsychotic action of chlorpromazine is related with its blocking action on ( ) A. central α-receptor B. central α-receptor 12 C. central D-receptor D. central D-receptor 12 E. central GABA receptor 17. Naloxone is ( ) A. opioid receptor antagonist B. M-receptor antagonist C. opioid receptor agonist D. dopamine receptor antagonist E. GABA receptor agonist 18. The drug for the treatment of ventricular fibrillation is ( ) A. digoxin B. digitalis C. adrenaline D. lidocaine E. strophanthin K 19. The best drug for the treatment of digitalis-induced tachycardia arrhythmias is ( ) A. propranolol B. phenytoin sodium C. quinidine D. amiodarone E. mexiletine 20. The first-choice drug for the treatment of sinus tachycardia is ( ) A. quinidine B. propranolol C. phenytoin sodium D. mexiletine E. digitalis 21. The diuretic agent with high efficacy of sodium excretion is ( ) A. hydrochlorothiazide B. furosemide C. amiloride D. acetazolamide E. spironolactone 22. Which drug often causes dry cough ( ) A. nifedipine B. captopril C. verapamil D. clonidine E. minoxidil 23. The common mechanism of antianginal effects of nitroglycerin, propranolol and nifedipine is ( ) A. dilation of the coronary arteries B. decrease in heart rate C. decrease in ventricular chamber size D. decrease in myocardial oxygen consumption E. inhibition of the contraction of heart muscles 24. Which drug can be used for the treatment of glaucoma ( ) A. propranolol B. timolol C. atenolol D. bisoprolol of a drug is the dose ( ) 50 E. metoprolol A. which is the half dose of lethal dose 25. LD B. which is the half dose of toxic dose C. which can kill half amount of bacteria D. which can kill half amount of parasites E. required to produce death in 50% of experimental animals 26. The therapeutic index is ( ) A. the ratio of ED/LD 9010 B. the ratio of ED/LD 955 C. the ratio of ED/LD 5050D. the ratio of LD/ED 5050 E. the distance between ED and LD5050 27. A weak acidic drug with pKa value of 3.4, in blood plasma(pH=7.4) the percentage of dissociation is about ( ) A. 10% B. 90% C. 99% D. 99.9% E. 99.99% 28. An acidic drug (such as Phenobarbital ) in alkaline urine,( ) A its dissociation decreased , reabsorption increased and excreted slowly B its dissociation increased, reabsorption decreased and excreted rapidly C its dissociation decreased, reabsorption decreased and excreted rapidly D its dissociation increased, reabsorption increased and excreted slowly E the speed of excretion is not changed 29. The main enzyme system in the liver that metabolizes drug is ( ) A. NADP B. cytochrome P450 B. monoamine oxidase D. hydrolyse E. glucuronide transferase 30. The effect of pilocarpine on eye are ( ) A. mydriasis, decrease in intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation (cycloplegia) B. miosis, decrease in intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation C. miosis, decrease in intraocular pressure, spasm of accommodation D. miosis, rise in intraocular pressure, spasm of accommodation E. mydriasis, rise in intraocular pressure, paralysis of accommodation B type questions (1 mark/each question, total=10 marks) Direction: In the following groups of questions, each question below contains five suggested answers. According to the meaning of question, choose the one best answer to each question. Each lettered choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. 31. The diuretic agent mainly acting on the distal convoluted tubule is ( ) 32. The diuretic agent mainly acting on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is ( ) A. hydrochlorothiazide B. spironolactone B. triamterene D. amiloride E. furosemide 33. The antibiotic which may cause a rare idiosyncratic aplastic anaemia is ( ) 34. The antibiotic which can cause discolouration and deformity in growing teeth and bone is ( ) A. penicillin G B. streptomycin C. erythromycin D. chloramphenicol E. tetracycline 35. Prazosin selectively blocks ( ) 36. Atenolol selectively blocks ( ) A. α -receptor B.α-receptor 12 -receptor D. β-receptor 12E.D-receptor 137. The antibacterial action of cephalosporins is related to its inhibitory action on ( ) 38. The antibacterial action of streptomycin is related to its inhibitory action on ( ) C. βA. dihydropteroate synthase B. dihydrofolic acid reductase C. DNA gyrase D. bacterial protein synthesis E. the formation of bacterial cell wall 39. Which drug can cause“cinchonism” (headache, dizziness, tinnitus) adverse reaction ( ) 40. Which drug can cause worsening of preexisting asthma and other forms of airway obstruction ( ) A. propranolol B. lidocaine C. quinidine D. verapamil E. phenytoin sodium C type questions (1 mark/each question, total=10 marks) Direction: In the following groups of questions, each question below contains four suggested answers of which one is right. After careful comparison of the suggested answers, choose the right answer. 41. Quinidine ( ) 42. Nifedipine ( ) A. inhibition of Na+ influx 2+ B. inhibition of Cainflux C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect 43. ( ) can be used for the treatment of hypertension. 44. ( ) can be used for the treatment of AV node block A. verapamil B. propranolol C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect 45. ( ) can be used for the treatment of atrial fibrillation. 46. ( ) can be used for the treatment of congestive heart failure A. quinidine B. digitoxin C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect 47. ( ) can be used for the treatment of hypertension. 48. ( ) can cause ankle edema adverse reaction A. verapamil B. Nifedipine C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect 49. The glucocorticoid has negligible sodium-retaining property( ) 50. The glucocorticoid is metabolized and converted to its active form in liver ( ). A. prednisone B. dexamethasone C. both A and B are correct D. both A and B are incorrect . Answer the following questions (10 marks /each question, total=50 marks) 51. The mechanism of action of captopril and its clinical uses. 52. The pharmacological effects and clinical uses of morphine. 53. The pharmacological effects and clinical uses of aspirin. 54. (1)List the kinds of adverse drug reactions. (2)what is first-pass elimination? (3) what is bioavailability? 55. Classification of antiarrhythmic drugs ( List the kinds of antiarrhythmic drugs, and one representative drug name for each kind of drug) I. Multiple-choice questions 1 C 2 B 3 C 4 E 5 C 6 D 7 D 8 C 9 B 10 B 11 E 12 E 13 E 14 B 15 C 16 D 17 A 18 D 19 B 20 B 21 B 22 B 23 D 24 B 25 E 26 D 27 E 28 B 29 B 30 C 31 A 32 E 33 D 34 E 35 A 36 C 37 E 38 D 39 C 40 A 41 C 42 B 43 C 44 D 45 C 46 B 47 C 48 B 49 B 50 A